Set of finite subsets of Z+ is denumerable

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issacnewton
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Hi

I am trying to prove that

[tex]P=\{X\in\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{Z^+})\;|\;X\mbox{ is finite }\}[/tex]

is denumerable. Now here is the strategy I am using. Let

[tex]A_n=\{X\in\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{Z^+})\;|\; |X|=n\;\}[/tex]

So [itex]A_n[/itex] are basically sets of subsets of [itex]\mathbb{Z^+}[/itex] with cardinality
n. So we see that

[tex]P=A_0\cup A_1\cup A_2\cdots[/tex]

I am trying to get help of the following theorem which is proved in the section of the book
(Velleman's How to prove it, section 7.2 )

Theorem: If [itex]\mathcal{F}[/itex] is a family of sets, [itex]\mathcal{F}[/itex] is countable
, and also every element of [itex]\mathcal{F}[/itex] is countable , then [itex]\bigcup\mathcal{F}[/itex] is countable .

So in this direction , let's define a family of sets [itex]\mathcal{F}[/itex]

[tex]\mathcal{F}=\{A_n\;|\;n\in \mathbb{N}\}[/tex]

[tex]\therefore \bigcup\mathcal{F}= P[/tex]

So to use the theorem quoted, I need to prove first that for all n in N, [itex]A_n[/itex] is
countable. How would I go about this ?

Thanks
 
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Try and think of a relation between [itex]A_n[/itex] and [itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex] (the cartesian product of n copies of [itex]\mathbb{Z^+}[/itex]).
 
Dick

I could show that [itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex] is denumerable using induction. But
are you suggesting that I prove [itex]A_n \sim \;( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex] ? Now
[itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex] has ordered pairs and [itex]A_n[/itex] has sets as elements, which are unordered. So how would we map it for the bijection ?
 
IssacNewton said:
Dick

I could show that [itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex] is denumerable using induction. But
are you suggesting that I prove [itex]A_n \sim \;( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex] ? Now
[itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex] has ordered pairs and [itex]A_n[/itex] has sets as elements, which are unordered. So how would we map it for the bijection ?

Don't worry about a bijection. Figure out an injection of the sets into the tuples. Define ordering as part of the mapping.
 
Ok

So I can map an element of [itex]A_n[/itex] into an element of [itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex] such that an element of [itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex] is sorted in an increasing order and all the members of n-tuple belong to the element of [itex]A_n[/itex] which is being mapped. That way I can prove the injection from [itex]A_n[/itex] to
[itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex]. So how would I put that formally ?
 
IssacNewton said:
Ok

So I can map an element of [itex]A_n[/itex] into an element of [itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex] such that an element of [itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex] is sorted in an
increasing order. That way I can prove the injection from [itex]A_n[/itex] to
[itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex]. So how would I put that formally ?

I think you just did. Given a set, sort it in increasing order. That gives a unique tuple in [itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex]. So given a set you can construct the corresponding ordered tuple. You don't have to spell out how you would sort it or anything. That's enough of a definition of a function for me. If you can explain to a computer programmer how to construct the correspondence then you've defined it.
 
Dick, I know that I gave the correct outline. I will try to formulate it using mathematical symbols now.
 
IssacNewton said:
Dick, I know that I gave the correct outline. I will try to formulate it using mathematical symbols now.

You sure did. I don't think every proof has to be Principia Mathematica. But go ahead.
 
ok So I have proved an injection from [itex]A_n[/itex] to [itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex].
Also I said in post # 3 , we can prove a bijection from [itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex] to
[itex]\mathbb{Z^+}[/itex]. That means we can prove an injection from [itex]A_n[/itex]
to [itex]\mathbb{Z^+}[/itex]. So for all n, [itex]A_n[/itex] is denumerable and hence countable. So I have proved that every element of [itex]\mathcal{F}[/itex] is countable.
I still have to prove that [itex]\mathcal{F}[/itex] itself is countable to use that theorem I stated in post # 1. How would I do that ?
 
Last edited:
IssacNewton said:
ok So I have proved an injection from [itex]A_n[/itex] to [itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex].
Also I said in post # 3 , we can prove a bijection from [itex]( \mathbb{Z^+} )^n[/itex] to
[itex]\mathbb{Z^+}[/itex]. That means we can prove an injection from [itex]A_n[/itex]
to [itex]\mathbb{Z^+}[/itex]. So for all n, [itex]A_n[/itex] is denumerable and hence countable. So I have proved that every element of [itex]\mathcal{F}[/itex] is countable.
I still have to prove that [itex]\mathcal{F}[/itex] itself is countable to use that theorem I stated in post # 1. How would I do that ?

The [itex]n[/itex] in [itex]A_n[/itex] is nonnegative integer since it's a finite cardinality. Doesn't that make it obvious?
 
oh i missed that. so define a function

[tex]h=\{(b,k)\in \mathcal{F}\times \mathbb{Z^+}|k=1+\mbox{ cardinality of any set in }b\;\}[/tex]

We can prove that [itex]h:\mathcal{F}\to \mathbb{Z^+}[/itex] and that h is a bijection.
So this proves that [itex]\mathcal{F}[/itex] is denumerable and hence countable. So using the theorem mentioned in post # 1, we see that P itself is countable. To prove that P is denumerable, I will still need to prove that P is infinite. To do that, I need to find a proper subset of P such that P is equipotent/equinumerous with that subset...

How would I do that ?
 
IssacNewton said:
oh i missed that. so define a function

[tex]h=\{(b,k)\in \mathcal{F}\times \mathbb{Z^+}|k=1+\mbox{ cardinality of any set in }b\;\}[/tex]

We can prove that [itex]h:\mathcal{F}\to \mathbb{Z^+}[/itex] and that h is a bijection.
So this proves that [itex]\mathcal{F}[/itex] is denumerable and hence countable. So using the theorem mentioned in post # 1, we see that P itself is countable. To prove that P is denumerable, I will still need to prove that P is infinite. To do that, I need to find a proper subset of P such that P is equipotent/equinumerous with that subset...

How would I do that ?

You can prove P is infinite by proving [itex]A_1[/itex] is infinite. And I think you are cluttering up a fairly simple proof with notationally complicated proofs of the obvious. If this were homework I was required to read, I wouldn't like that.
 
Dick , I am doing the problem from Daniel Velleman's "How to prove it" . The book is teaching to do proofs. As for the author, he is the student of Mary Ellen Rudin, who in turn was a student of Robert Lee Moore. And I have heard on other forums that these people were heckler for definitions. May be that's a school of thought.
 
IssacNewton said:
Dick , I am doing the problem from Daniel Velleman's "How to prove it" . The book is teaching to do proofs. As for the author, he is the student of Mary Ellen Rudin, who in turn was a student of Robert Lee Moore. And I have heard on other forums that these people were heckler for definitions. May be that's a school of thought.

Oh, alright. I'll stop fussing about what I see as clutter. Maybe some people do like it.
 
You're overthinking the proof that P is infinite. P contains all the singletons {n}, where n is any positive integer, so obviously it is not finite.