Show that the identity maps to the identity

  • Thread starter Mr Davis 97
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In summary: So you know that the kernel is trivial, which is sufficient to show that it is injective. But it isn't necessary to show the statement.
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Mr Davis 97
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Homework Statement


Suppose that ##\langle S,*\rangle## has an identity e for *. If ##\phi : S \rightarrow S'## is an isomorphism of ##\langle S,*\rangle## with ##\langle S',*\rangle##, then ##\phi (e)## is an identity element for the binary operation ##*'## on S'.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


We know that ##e*s = s*e = s##. Since ##\phi## is a function, we then have ##\phi (e*s) = \phi (s*e) = \phi(s)##. By definition of homomorphism, we have that ##\phi (e) *' \phi (s) = \phi (s) *' \phi (e) = \phi(s)##. Since ##\phi## is a surjection, we know that there exists an s in S s.t. for all s' in S' ##\phi(s) = s'##. Thus ##\phi (e) *' s' = s' *' \phi (e) = s'##, for all s' in S'.

This seems to be the correct proof. However, nowhere do I use the fact that phi is injective. Does this mean that I have done something wrong?
 
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  • #2
Mr Davis 97 said:

Homework Statement


Suppose that ##\langle S,*\rangle## has an identity e for *. If ##\phi : S \rightarrow S'## is an isomorphism of ##\langle S,*\rangle## with ##\langle S',*\rangle##, then ##\phi (e)## is an identity element for the binary operation ##*'## on S'.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


We know that ##e*s = s*e = s##. Since ##\phi## is a function, we then have ##\phi (e*s) = \phi (s*e) = \phi(s)##. By definition of homomorphism, we have that ##\phi (e) *' \phi (s) = \phi (s) *' \phi (e) = \phi(s)##.
Since ##\phi## is a surjection, we know that there exists an s in S s.t. for all s' in S' ##\phi(s) = s'##.
The last sentence is a bit weird, because the for all quantifier is misplaced. It should be ##\forall \; s' \in S' \, \, \exists \; s\in S \, : \, \phi (s)=s'## not the other way around. These quantifiers don't commute. I have the suspicion that it is because you did the second step first.

You want to show that ##\phi (e)## is an identity element in ##S'##. So you have to show that ##\phi (e) * s' = s'## for an arbitrary element ##s' \in S'##. Now you use the surjection to conclude, that there is an element ##s \in S## with ##\phi (s) =s'## and apply your first step. You switched the order.

##s'## is chosen arbitrary and ##s## is not, as it has to map to the special choice ##s'##. It exists due to surjectivity, but the for all quantifier isn't used correctly. Arbitrary doesn't mean for all. You show it for one, and at the end, it holds for all as long as you don't pose any restrictions on the choice of ##s'##. So you probably meant the right thing, but didn't phrase it the right way. If you start with for all ##s'## instead of an arbitrary but fixed ##s'## - which you can do - then you should write ##s=s(s')## as it depends on ##s'## and is not the same for all ##s'##. But this is harder to read than a single example ##s'## where we state afterwards, that it is the same procedure for all and thus hold for all.
Thus ##\phi (e) *' s' = s' *' \phi (e) = s'##, for all s' in S'.

This seems to be the correct proof. However, nowhere do I use the fact that phi is injective. Does this mean that I have done something wrong?

Surjectivity (along with homomorphy which you didn't mention in the beginning) is sufficient. In fact the entire kernel of ##\phi## maps to ##1' \in S'##.
 
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1. What does it mean for an identity map to map to itself?

An identity map is a function that maps each element of a set to itself. So, when the identity map is applied to an element, the output will be the same element. Therefore, when we say that the identity map maps to itself, it means that the output of the map is the same as the input.

2. How is the identity map represented mathematically?

The identity map is represented as id or Id, and it is often denoted as idA, where A is the set it is mapping from. It can also be written as f(x) = x, where f is the identity map and x is an element of the set.

3. Why is it important to show that the identity map maps to itself?

The identity map is a fundamental concept in mathematics, and it is important to show that it maps to itself to demonstrate its properties. It is also used in many mathematical proofs and serves as the basis for other important mathematical concepts such as inverse functions.

4. How can we prove that the identity map maps to itself?

To prove that the identity map maps to itself, we need to show that for every element x in the set, the output of the map is x. This can be done by substituting x into the identity map equation and showing that the output is indeed x. This holds true for all elements in the set, thus proving that the identity map maps to itself.

5. Can the identity map ever not map to itself?

No, the identity map will always map to itself. This is because the definition of an identity map dictates that the output must be the same as the input. Therefore, it is impossible for the identity map to not map to itself.

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