- #1
endeavor
- 176
- 0
Given that the joint probability Pr(w,x,y,z) over four variables factorizes as
[itex]Pr(w,x,y,z) = Pr(w) Pr(z|y) Pr(y|x,w)Pr(x)[/itex]
show that x is independent of w by showing that Pr(x,w) = Pr(x)Pr(w).
Attempt: if we simply assume Pr(x,w) = Pr(x)Pr(w), then:
[itex]
\begin{align}
Pr(w,x,y,z) &= Pr(w) Pr(z|y) Pr(y|x,w) Pr(x)\\
&\stackrel{?}= Pr(x,w) Pr(z|y) Pr(y|x,w)\\
&\stackrel{?}= Pr(z|y) Pr(w,x,y)
\end{align}
[/itex]
But can we say the last line equals Pr(w,x,y,z)? I think this problem can be solved by simply applying Bayes' rule several times, but I can't seem to wrap my head around it.
[itex]Pr(w,x,y,z) = Pr(w) Pr(z|y) Pr(y|x,w)Pr(x)[/itex]
show that x is independent of w by showing that Pr(x,w) = Pr(x)Pr(w).
Attempt: if we simply assume Pr(x,w) = Pr(x)Pr(w), then:
[itex]
\begin{align}
Pr(w,x,y,z) &= Pr(w) Pr(z|y) Pr(y|x,w) Pr(x)\\
&\stackrel{?}= Pr(x,w) Pr(z|y) Pr(y|x,w)\\
&\stackrel{?}= Pr(z|y) Pr(w,x,y)
\end{align}
[/itex]
But can we say the last line equals Pr(w,x,y,z)? I think this problem can be solved by simply applying Bayes' rule several times, but I can't seem to wrap my head around it.