Showing f is Differentiable at c: A Challenge

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the differentiability of a continuous function f on an interval I, specifically at a point c where it is not initially known to be differentiable. The problem states that the derivative f' has a continuous extension at c, and participants are exploring how this impacts the differentiability of f at that point.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are considering the implications of the existence of the limit of the derivative as x approaches c, questioning how this relates to the boundedness and uniform continuity of f'. They are also discussing the application of the mean value theorem and the intermediate value property of derivatives.

Discussion Status

There is an active exploration of how uniform continuity of the derivative might lead to conclusions about the differentiability of f at c. Some participants suggest that if the limits from both sides are equal, this could imply differentiability at that point. However, there is no explicit consensus on the final steps to take.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the nuances of continuity and differentiability, particularly in relation to the behavior of the derivative at the point c. The discussion reflects uncertainty about the implications of the assumptions given in the problem statement.

cooljosh2k2
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Homework Statement



Let I be an interval, and f: I --> R be a continuous function that is known to be differentiable on I except at c. Assume that f ' : I \ {c} --> R admits a continuous continuation to c (lim x -> c f ' exists). Show that f is in fact also differentiable at x and f ' (c) = lim x->c f '.

The Attempt at a Solution



This seems like a very easy question to me, but for some reason its stumping me, maybe because of the way my prof worded it, but I am just a little confused. I know i need to use the mean value theorem, but I am still stuck. Please help.
 
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It seems that the fact that (lim x -> c f ' exists) means f derievative is bounded on I is important.

If I am thinking correctly I think f ' is uniformly continuous since it has a continuous extension on I.
 
╔(σ_σ)╝ said:
It seems that the fact that (lim x -> c f ' exists) means f derievative is bounded on I is important.

If I am thinking correctly I think f ' is uniformly continuous since it has a continuous extension on I.

How does the f ' being uniformly continuous help me at reaching my answer? If the Interval is [a,b], then the f ' is continuous on the open intervals (a,c) and (c,b), how could i show that while f' may not be continuous at in the interval at c, a derivative still exists.
 
cooljosh2k2 said:
How does the f ' being uniformly continuous help me at reaching my answer? If the Interval is [a,b], then the f ' is continuous on the open intervals (a,c) and (c,b), how could i show that the f ' is continuous from (a,b) and therefore a derivative exists at c.

If we assume (lim x -> c f ' exists) then f ' has to be continuous at c since the left and right limits have to be equal. Once f ' is continuous on (a,b), f ' (c) = lim x->c f ' is simply a consequence of continuity.


Also if f' actually turns out to be uniformly continuous then the problem is trivial since f ' would be continuous and which implies f ' (c) = lim x->c f '.
 
While the derivative of a function is not necessarily continuous, it does satisfy the "intermediate value property": if f'(a)= c and g'(b)= d, then, for any e between c and d, there exist x between a and b such that f'(x)= e.

In particular, that means that f is differentiable at x= c if and only if [math]\lim_{x\to c^-}f'(x)=\lim_{x\to c^+} f'(x)[/itex] and f'(c) is equal to that mutual value.
 

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