Simplifying Complex Arithmetic: Converting cos(1+i) to Cartesian and Euler Forms

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To express cos(1+i) in Cartesian and Euler forms, the correct approach involves using the identities for cosine and sine with complex arguments. The expression can be simplified to cos(1)cosh(1) - i(sin(1)sinh(1)), which represents the Cartesian form a + ib. For the Euler form, the magnitude r is calculated as the square root of the sum of the squares of the real and imaginary parts, while the angle θ can be determined using arctan of the imaginary part divided by the real part. There is a discussion about the relationship between hyperbolic functions and the polar form, emphasizing that the process is straightforward despite initial confusion. The final Euler form can be expressed as r e^(iθ), with some notes on potential simplifications.
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Homework Statement



I have a very simple complex arithmetic question.

How do I express the quantity cos(1+i) in Cartesian (a+ib) and Euler(re^i*theta)

Is this the right track?:

cos(1+i)={e^{i(1+i)}\over2}+{e^{-i(1+i)}\over2}

I know that:

cos(1+i)=cos(1)cos(i)-sin(1)sin(i)

but I am not sure how to get the "i's" out of the cosine and sine.
 
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Well, sure you are on the right track. The same formula you used before. cos(i)=(e^(i*i)+e^(i*(-i))/2=(e^(-1)+e^1)/2. That's cosh(1). Use similar expression for sin(i).
 
Dick said:
Well, sure you are on the right track. The same formula you used before. cos(i)=(e^(i*i)+e^(i*(-i))/2=(e^(-1)+e^1)/2. That's cosh(1). Use similar expression for sin(i).


So then as far as cartesian form goes:


cos(1+i)=cos(1)cosh(1)-i(sin(1)sinh(1))

If that is correct, what is the relationship between the hyperbolic functions and the notation:

re^{i\theta}
 
Now you've got cos(1+i) written in the form a+ib where a and b are real. Now it's the usual relation with the polar form. r=sqrt(a^2+b^2), theta=arctan(b/a), right? There's nothing terribly spooky or mysterious going on here.
 
Thanks Dick. I don't know why this stuff cooks my noodle so much. I feel as though I cannot wrap my head around it. I always think there is some Identity that I am not taking into account or that my answers are not nearly simplified enough.

One last question. Would you consider it correct to write the equation in Euler form this way:


\sqrt{(cos(1)cosh(1))^2+(sin(1)sinh(1))^2}e^{i(arctan{(sin(1)sinh(1)\over(cos(1)cosh(1)})}
 
That's about as good as I could come up with. But you are missing a sign in the argument. You could also write tan(1)*tanh(1) in the argument. But that's not all that much of a real simplification, is it?
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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