Simplifying Complex Arithmetic: Converting cos(1+i) to Cartesian and Euler Forms

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around expressing the complex quantity cos(1+i) in both Cartesian and Euler forms. Participants explore the relationships between trigonometric and hyperbolic functions in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to use the definition of cosine in terms of exponential functions and expresses uncertainty about handling the imaginary components. Some participants confirm the approach and suggest using hyperbolic functions for simplification.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively discussing the conversion of cos(1+i) into different forms. Some guidance has been provided regarding the relationships between the functions involved, and there is an ongoing exploration of the polar form representation.

Contextual Notes

There is a sense of uncertainty among participants regarding identities and simplifications, with some expressing concern about the adequacy of their answers. The discussion reflects a mix of confidence and confusion about the underlying concepts.

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Homework Statement



I have a very simple complex arithmetic question.

How do I express the quantity cos(1+i) in Cartesian (a+ib) and Euler(re^i*theta)

Is this the right track?:

[tex]cos(1+i)={e^{i(1+i)}\over2}+{e^{-i(1+i)}\over2}[/tex]

I know that:

[tex]cos(1+i)=cos(1)cos(i)-sin(1)sin(i)[/tex]

but I am not sure how to get the "i's" out of the cosine and sine.
 
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Well, sure you are on the right track. The same formula you used before. cos(i)=(e^(i*i)+e^(i*(-i))/2=(e^(-1)+e^1)/2. That's cosh(1). Use similar expression for sin(i).
 
Dick said:
Well, sure you are on the right track. The same formula you used before. cos(i)=(e^(i*i)+e^(i*(-i))/2=(e^(-1)+e^1)/2. That's cosh(1). Use similar expression for sin(i).


So then as far as cartesian form goes:


[tex]cos(1+i)=cos(1)cosh(1)-i(sin(1)sinh(1))[/tex]

If that is correct, what is the relationship between the hyperbolic functions and the notation:

[tex]re^{i\theta}[/tex]
 
Now you've got cos(1+i) written in the form a+ib where a and b are real. Now it's the usual relation with the polar form. r=sqrt(a^2+b^2), theta=arctan(b/a), right? There's nothing terribly spooky or mysterious going on here.
 
Thanks Dick. I don't know why this stuff cooks my noodle so much. I feel as though I cannot wrap my head around it. I always think there is some Identity that I am not taking into account or that my answers are not nearly simplified enough.

One last question. Would you consider it correct to write the equation in Euler form this way:


[tex]\sqrt{(cos(1)cosh(1))^2+(sin(1)sinh(1))^2}e^{i(arctan{(sin(1)sinh(1)\over(cos(1)cosh(1)})}[/tex]
 
That's about as good as I could come up with. But you are missing a sign in the argument. You could also write tan(1)*tanh(1) in the argument. But that's not all that much of a real simplification, is it?
 

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