Singularities in C* of f(z) = \frac{{\pi z - \pi {z^3}}}{{\sin (\pi z)}}

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves finding and classifying the singularities of the function f(z) = \frac{{\pi z - \pi {z^3}}}{{\sin (\pi z)}} in the punctured complex plane C*. The original poster attempts to identify the nature of these singularities and calculate residues at specific points.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster identifies singularities at z = n (n ∈ Z, n ≠ 0, n ≠ 1) as simple poles and questions the classification of z = 0 and z = 1 as removable singularities. They express uncertainty about calculating the residue at infinity and whether their reasoning regarding non-isolated singularities is correct.

Discussion Status

Some participants provide guidance on the relationship between residues at singularities and suggest examining the function f(1/z) to find the residue at infinity. The discussion reflects a mix of attempts to clarify the original poster's understanding and questions about the correctness of their assumptions.

Contextual Notes

The original poster expresses urgency in receiving feedback and seeks confirmation on the translation of their question into English, indicating potential constraints in communication.

libelec
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Homework Statement



Find and classify the singularities in C* of [tex]f(z) = \frac{{\pi z - \pi {z^3}}}{{\sin (\pi z)}}[/tex], and give information about Res(f, 0) and Res(f, infinity)

The Attempt at a Solution



I found that the singularities in C are z = n, with n [tex]\in[/tex] Z, n[tex]\neq[/tex] 0, n[tex]\neq[/tex] 1. These are simple poles, while z=0 and z=1 are removable singularities (therefore, Res(f, 0)=0).

Now, in C*: what I thought is that, since the poles tend to infinity when n tends to infinity, then there is a non-isolated singularity.

But then I don't know how to calculate Res(f, infinity).

Did I think that the right way or what am I missing?

Thanks.
 
Last edited:
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Could somebody check this out, please?
 
Did I write this correctly? Answer please, because I don't know if I'm translating my question properly into English.
 
No one? Please, I need to know this urgently.
 
A singularity at infinity of f(z) has the same residue as the singularity at 0 of f(1/z).

Look at
[tex]f(\frac{1}{z}) = \frac{\frac{\pi}{z} - \frac{\pi}{z^3}}{\sin (\frac{\pi}{z})}[/tex]
 
Thanks. You say the only way to find out is to find the a-1 coefficient (and then multiply by -1)?

Was my assumption that it was a non-isolated singularity correct?
 

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