Steve4Physics
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You should now simplify further by cancelling-out ##ml## in the second equation. (This then simplifies subsequent equations.)MatinSAR said:I rewrite equations in post #40:$$ (M+m)\ddot x +ml(\ddot \theta \cos \theta - \dot \theta^2 \sin \theta) = 0$$$$mgl \sin \theta+ml\ddot x \cos \theta + ml^2 \ddot \theta=0$$
I think you mentioned in an earlier post that the approximations were given as part of the question. The approximation that ## \dot \theta ^2 \approx 0## is not immediately obvious (to me, anyway) but makes sense.MatinSAR said:We have these approximations: $$\cos \theta \approx 1$$$$\sin \theta \approx \theta $$ $$ \theta ^2 = \dot \theta ^2 \approx 0$$
You will get simpler equations if you cancel ##ml##, as noted above.MatinSAR said:After substituting we get: $$(M+m)\ddot x +ml\ddot \theta = 0$$$$mgl\theta + ml\ddot x+ml^2\ddot \theta =0$$ After solving for ##\ddot x## in first equation and substituting in second, we get: $$ \ddot x =\dfrac {-ml\ddot \theta}{M+m}$$ $$ mgl\theta + ml\dfrac {-ml\ddot \theta}{M+m}+ml^2\ddot \theta =0 $$ Simplifying : $$ (ml^2 - \dfrac {m^2l^2}{M+m})\ddot \theta +mgl \theta = 0 $$
Now, I have equations of motion: $$\ddot \theta + \dfrac {mgl}{(ml^2 - \dfrac {m^2l^2}{M+m})}\theta = 0 $$ $$ \ddot x =\dfrac {-ml\ddot \theta}{M+m}$$
No (as already noted by @Orodruin).MatinSAR said:I think ##\omega## is the coefficient of ##\theta## in the above equation.
One useful check of your final answer is to consider the case where ##M \gg m##. This corresponds to a basic simple pendulum with the top of the pendulum stationary; you should be familiar with the standard formula for the period in this case.
Edited - typo's