Solution for Vibrating String Problem: Wave Equation Problem Explained

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on solving the vibrating string problem represented by the wave equation \(\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial t^2}=\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2}\) with specific boundary and initial conditions. The participant initially derived a solution in the form \(\sum_{n=1}^\infty [a_n\cos(n\pi t)+b_n\sin(n\pi t)]\sin(n\pi x)\), but later recognized discrepancies with the book's solution, particularly the presence of the term \(\frac{1}{7\pi}\sin(7\pi t)\sin(7\pi x)\) and the use of \(2n+1\) in the arguments. The participant clarified that the substitution of \(n\) with \(2k+1\) was necessary to eliminate even terms, as they contribute zero to the solution.

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This is the problem, it says to solve the solution to the vibrating string problem.
[tex]\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial t^2}=\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2}[/tex]
[tex]u(0,t)=u(1,t)=0,t>0[/tex]
[tex]u(x,0)=x(1-x),0<x<1[/tex]
[tex]\frac{\partial u}{\partial t}(x,0)=sin(7\pi x),0<x<1[/tex]

The solution form I obtained (without showing my work.) is..

[tex]\sum_{n=1}^\infty [a_ncos(n\pi t)+b_nsin(n\pi t)]sin(n\pi x)[/tex]

I KNOW this is correct because in the chapter they derive the solution and it is of this form. The answer in the back of the book says this however..

[tex]u(x,t)=\frac{1}{7\pi}sin(7\pi t)sin(7\pi x)+\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{8}{((2n+1)\pi)^3}cos(2n+1)sin(2n+1)[/tex]

I know I didn't show my final answer, but it turned out being wrong. I do not understand where they got the first term and most importantly, why "2n+1" appears in the arguments of the sine and cosine terms. That would mean that it would not be following the formula for the wave equation solution, namely..

[tex]\sum_{n=1}^\infty [a_ncos(\frac{n \pi \alpha}{L} t)+b_nsin(\frac{n \pi \alpha}{L} t)]sin(\frac{n \pi}{L} x)[/tex]

Can anyone explain this? Thanks a lot!
 
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Ohh! Never mind! I see what they did. The variable they used was k not n. They replaced n with 2k+1 to eliminate the (-1)^n that was in the solution.

The only reason you can do this I think is because in the solution I had (which I know now is correct) the coefficient formula has a 1-(-1)^n in the numerator. So all even values of n are therefore equal to zero.
 

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