Solve a Laplace transform puzzle

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a Laplace transform problem involving the integral of the hyperbolic cosine function multiplied by a unit step function. Participants are exploring the discrepancies between two methods of solving the problem and questioning the validity of their approaches.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to apply standard Laplace transform formulas but finds inconsistencies in the results from two different methods. Some participants question the derivation of the direct integral and the handling of the unit step function in the integral.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, with some providing clarifications and insights into the handling of the unit step function. There is recognition of potential mistakes in the original approach, but no consensus has been reached on a definitive solution.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the role of the unit step function in the integral, which affects the limits of integration and the resulting expressions. Participants are considering how this impacts the validity of the Laplace transform results.

davyyao
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Hi~
I recently solve a Laplace transform problem as following
L[int{t,0}cosh(t'-1)U(t'-1)dt']=? U(t'-1) is the unit step function(=1 for t'>1, =zero otherwise)
According the standard Laplace formula :
(1)L[cosh(t-1)U(t-1)]=exp(-s)*s/(s^2-1);
(2)L(int{t,0}f(t')dt')=F(s)/s. where F(s)=L(f(t))

I conclude the answer to be:
exp(-s)/(s^2-1)

But from the direct integral formula:
L[int{t,0}cosh(t'-1)U(t'-1)dt']=L[sinh(t-1)]=(1/2)*(exp(-1)/(s-1)-exp(1)/(s+1)).

This two answers are not consistent!
I totally have no idea what's wrong with the two methods?

I believe the second method should be correct by basic definition of Laplace transformation.

Thanks very much!
 
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How did you find the direct integral (the step at the first equal sign)?
 
davyyao said:
Hi~
I recently solve a Laplace transform problem as following
L[int{t,0}cosh(t'-1)U(t'-1)dt']=? U(t'-1) is the unit step function(=1 for t'>1, =zero otherwise)
According the standard Laplace formula :
(1)L[cosh(t-1)U(t-1)]=exp(-s)*s/(s^2-1);
(2)L(int{t,0}f(t')dt')=F(s)/s. where F(s)=L(f(t))

I conclude the answer to be:
exp(-s)/(s^2-1)

But from the direct integral formula:
L[int{t,0}cosh(t'-1)U(t'-1)dt']=L[sinh(t-1)]=(1/2)*(exp(-1)/(s-1)-exp(1)/(s+1)).

This two answers are not consistent!
I totally have no idea what's wrong with the two methods?

I believe the second method should be correct by basic definition of Laplace transformation.

Thanks very much!

\int_0^t \cosh(t'-1) U(t'-1) \, dt' \neq \sinh(t-1)
because the integral vanishes if t < 1 but sinh(t-1) does not.
 
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\int_0^t cosh(t&#039;- 1)U(t&#039;-1)dt&#039;= \int_1^t cos(t&#039;- 1)dt&#039;
and with the substitution u= t'- 1, du= dt', when t'= 1, u= 0 and when t'= t, u= t- 1 so that becomes
\int_0^{t-1} cosh(u)du.
 
Thanks Ray Vickson and Hallsoflvy for nice answering.
I think I make mistake to deal with the unit step function in the integral form.
It clear now for me!
 

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