Solve Indefinite Integral: $\int\frac{\arctan x}{1+x^2}dx$

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The integral $\int\frac{\arctan x}{1+x^2}dx$ can be solved using the substitution $u=\tan^{-1}(x)$, leading to $du= \frac{1}{1+x^{2}} \, dx$. This transforms the integral into $\int u \, du$, which evaluates to $\frac{1}{2}(\arctan^{2}(x)) + C$. The notation for the final answer should be clearly presented as $\frac{1}{2}(\arctan^{2}(x)) + C$ for clarity and correctness.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of integral calculus
  • Familiarity with the arctangent function
  • Knowledge of substitution methods in integration
  • Basic notation conventions in mathematical expressions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study techniques for solving integrals involving inverse trigonometric functions
  • Learn about integration by substitution in more complex scenarios
  • Explore common notation practices in calculus to improve clarity
  • Practice additional problems involving the integration of arctangent functions
USEFUL FOR

Students studying calculus, mathematics educators, and anyone looking to deepen their understanding of integration techniques involving inverse trigonometric functions.

paulmdrdo1
Messages
382
Reaction score
0
how would i go about solving this

$\displaystyle\int\frac{\arctan x}{1+x^2}dx$?

i tried substitution but i didn't work.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
That's very strange. Did you try the obvious substitution u= tan^{-1}(x). What is the derivative of tan^{1}(x)? (And do you understand that tan^{-1}(x) here is the arctangent, NOT the \frac{1}{tan(x)}?!)
 
yes, i know that. but how do i use substitution here?
 
Following HoI's suggestion, we get that $u=\tan^{-1}(x)$, and
$$du= \frac{1}{1+x^{2}} \, dx,$$
and the integral becomes
$$\int u \, du.$$
Can you continue?
 
this is my answer,

$\displaystyle\frac{1}{2}(\tan^{-1}x)^2+C$
 
Last edited:
paulmdrdo said:
this is my answer,

$\displaystyle\frac{1}{2}(Tan^{-1})^2+C$

That is the correct idea, but awful notation: $\displaystyle\frac{1}{2}(\arctan^{2}(x))+C$
 
Plato said:
That is the correct idea, but awful notation: $\displaystyle\frac{1}{2}(\arctan^{2}(x))+C$
I find that "atn(x)" works quite well also.

-Dan
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
4K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K