Solving a Double Integral with k Converging to pi

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating a double integral related to a function defined over a circle of radius 1. The original poster is exploring how the integral converges as the parameter k approaches zero.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand the implications of integrating over a circle and whether their interpretation of the integral is correct. They express uncertainty about the complexity of the integration process and the behavior of the integral as k changes.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the original poster's interpretation of the problem. Some have provided clarifications regarding the concepts of volume versus area and the nature of the parameter k. There is a focus on using polar coordinates to simplify the integral.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of potential confusion regarding the terminology used (volume vs. area) and the mathematical implications of using k approaching zero. The original poster also seeks guidance on sharing images from Mathcad in the forum.

ashnicholls
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First attatchment is an integral I have been given.

Using different values of k I have to find out what value the integral converges too.

What I want to know is does this mean integrating the volume of circle with radius 1.

Shown in formula in the second attachment, I have also arranged it using polar coordinates.

And if that is right, I have found but only using mathcad that if k = 1/infinity the value converges to pi.

Is that right, because how I suppose to integrate the function shown using fractions to k, surely this is too complex to do by hand.

Cheers Ash
 

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And how do import pictures from mathcad into the post without having to make them attachments.

Cheers
 
A circle of radius 1 doesn't have a "volume"! What it means is that you are to integrate the given function over the interior of the circle.

And k can't "equal 1 over infinity" because infinity is not a number. Do you mean k= 0?

Yes, polar coordinates is the way to go here. You are aware, are you not, that [itex]sin^2(\theta)+ cos^2(\theta)= 1[/itex], so that x2+ y2= r2? That simplifies your integral a great deal!
 
Yes sorry I meant area, not volume,

and yes i know it simplifies, i was just asking whether I had interpreted the problem correctly.

and yes by 1/infinity I did mean zero.

I was meaning as k gets smaller it converges to pi.

So is the function that i posted the right interpretation of the problem?

Cheers Ash
 

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