Solving Eigenvalue Problem with Periodic BCs: Find b for Self-Adjointness

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a Sturm-Liouville problem defined by the differential equation u'' + lambda u = 0, subject to boundary conditions u'(0) = b*u'(pi) and u(0) = u(pi). The goal is to determine the value of the constant b that ensures the self-adjointness of the problem.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of periodic boundary conditions on self-adjointness, with one suggesting that b must equal 1 for the conditions to remain periodic. Others consider the possibility of different boundary conditions leading to alternative values for b.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various interpretations being explored regarding the value of b and its effect on self-adjointness. Some participants express confidence in the necessity of b being equal to 1, while others suggest that mixed boundary conditions could allow for different values.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference specific forms of boundary conditions and their potential impact on the problem's self-adjointness, indicating a need for further exploration of these conditions.

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Homework Statement



I have a problem

u'' + lambda u = 0

with BCs: u'(0) = b*u'(pi), u(0) = u(pi).

where b is a constant.

I have to find b which makes the BCs and problem self-adjoint.



Homework Equations



see below


The Attempt at a Solution



I see in my notes that it says that when there are periodic BCs, then the problem is self-adjoint. I think b = 1, and not any other number. Won't the value of the derivative of the solution change if b does not equal one? And therefore the BCs will not be periodic any more? Thoughts? Thanks.
 
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For a Sturm-Liouville problem(Self-adjoint) on the form:
\dfrac{d}{dx}\left(p(x)\dfrac{dU}{dx}\right) +q(x)U +\lambda w(x)U = 0
the following integrated value should vanish, then the problem is self-adjoint:
\left[p\left(u^*\dfrac{dv}{dx}-\dfrac{du^*}{dx}v\right)\right]_{0}^{\pi}
Where u and v are solutions to the problem. so in your case:
p(x)=1, q(x)=0, w(x)=1\\
With periodic boundary condiitions:
u\dfrac{du}{dx} |_0 = u\dfrac{du}{dx}|_\pi = 0
Only holds true for b=1 in my opinion.
But maybe diriclet or legendre or neumann or mixed BCS can lead to another value of b?
 
actually i think that mixed BCS are the only other option in your case.
 
Ah yes, now I comprehend the method. Thank you.
 

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