Altabeh said:
Well, I guess you have no idea what a Deutsch-Politzer spacetime is! You should take a look at this paper http://ls.poly.edu/~jbain/philrel/philrellectures/15.TimeMachines.pdf
Um, why do you think "I have no idea" what it is? Perhaps you could point out a specific flaw in my comments instead of just making unproductive derogatory comments like this.
Altabeh said:
In the case of a DP spacetime, time axis is bent over in such a way that the neighbourhood of +infinity meets that of -infinity to form the circumferential axis of an infinitely extended cylinder.
Not according to the http://ls.poly.edu/~jbain/philrel/philrellectures/15.TimeMachines.pdf from the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy, where the two finite strips are labeled P1/P4 and P2/P3, and the article says that it is specifically the deletion and identification of these points at the boundaries of the strips that make the spacetime singular:
as illustrated by the (1 + 1)-dimensional version of Deutsch-Politzer spacetime[15] (see Figure 2), which is constructed from two-dimensional Minkowski spacetime by deleting the points p1–p4 and then gluing together the strips as shown ... The deletion of the points p1–p4 means that the Deutsch-Politzer spacetime is singular in the sense that it is geodesically incomplete.
JesseM said:
Mentz114 said the choice of coordinates was just the first thing that came to mind--I think it would be much easier just to use a standard inertial frame where the metric is ds^2 = dt^2 - dx^2 - dy^2 - dz^2, and then add the condition that the time coordinate can lie in the range T0 ≤ t < T1. Presumably it would be possible to find the coordinate transformation between this system and the coordinate system suggested by Mentz114, both should just be different coordinate systems on the same spacetime.
Altabeh said:
I had not heard of "groundhog day" spacetime in my entire life until yesterday! But definitely the choice of coordinate system is fully wrong if there is no identification of bounds for the time-component!
Are you referring to Mentz114's choice of coordinate system, or my alternate choice in the paragraph you were replying to above?
Altabeh said:
Starting at t=0 means starting from a spacelike surface and thus traveling faster than light!
Again, are you talking about Mentz114's coordinate system or mine? In my coordinate system no object is actually traveling along the spacelike surface t=T
0 in my example, the spacelike surface is simply the set of points which we wish to topologically identify with a different spacelike surface, just as the spacelike segments L+ and L- are identified in the diagram of DP spacetime from the paper you linked to. And just like in the second diagram on p. 7 of that paper in the section 'Prediction I', the worldines of actual particles are never parallel to these surfaces, rather the worldlines hit one surface at an angle (between 45 degrees and 90 degrees in a spacetime diagram) and reappear at the corresponding point on the other surface, at the same angle relative to that surface.
Altabeh said:
If one is at rest at t=0, so dx=dy=dz=0 and this basically says that ds^2=0 at (0,x_0,y_0_z_0). Is there any ambiguity about this simple calculus?
Yes, in Mentz114's coordinate system since sin(0)=0, then if dx=dy=dz=0 it will be true that ds^2=0. But as I said this is merely a sign of a badly-behaved
coordinate system, a coordinate system where it would be impossible for any timelike worldline to actually be "at rest" at t=0, and where the t-axis is lightlike rather than timelike at this point (
Rindler coordinates have the same problem at the Rindler horizon at x=0...no timelike observer could be 'at rest' there). Coordinate issues like this don't mean there is any physical problem with the spacetime, for example an actual timelike worldline will never be accelerated to the speed of light. Would you be willing to discuss my coordinate system rather than Mentz114's?
Altabeh said:
I said that you don't have any idea about DP spacetime! There we have CTCs and if you study that paper I cited above, everything will be clear to you. After you walk around the cylider along one of the cross-sectional surfaces you get to where you were at with having your time the same as it was at the start point!
What page of that paper are you looking at? I see no "cylinder" in the discussion of the DP spacetime. P. 7 introduces the DP spacetime, and they explain it is just a Minkowksi spacetime but with the spacelike strips L+ and L- identified, they even say "Deutsch-Politzer spacetime only differs from Minkowski spacetime on these two strips". In Minkowski spacetime you can go infinitely far in any spatial direction and never return to your point of origin, the same would be true here.
I just looked back over earlier parts of the paper and realized that probably you mistakenly think that the "rolled-up Minkowski spacetime" on p. 1 is a DP spacetime. But that's wrong, they never use the words "Deutsch-Politzer spacetime" to describe
that spacetime, they only introduce this term on p. 7 to describe the different spacetime illustrated there.
Altabeh said:
Indeed, your time-line starts at some T>0, and then goes to infinity and then jumps to -infinity and then reaches 0 to only be reset when it becomes T! This is all behind the name "time-machine" given to this example!
They do say that the "rolled up Minkowski spacetime" (
not the DP spacetime) is obtained by identifying +infinity and -infinity on ordinary Minkowski spacetime. But I think they just mean that this is how you can look at the rolled up Minkowski time
topologically, not that a given timelike worldline must actually experience an infinite proper time before performing a single "loop".
Altabeh said:
All in all, with that coordinate system defined by Mentz114, I think we are forced to bond time to avoid singularities!
Are you talking about coordinate singularities (like the event horizon of a black hole) or physical singularities (which cause a spacetime to be geodesically incomplete because worldlines simply "end" when they hit the singularity)? It might be that there if we plotted timelike worldlines in Mentz114's system we'd find some coordinate singularities where a worldline would take an infinite coordinate time to reach a boundary, but this would not be proof of a physical singularity in the spacetime itself.
Altabeh said:
Well, then none of the efforts on explaining why DP spacetime
No one is talking about DP spacetime but you, and it seems like you have gotten the "rolled-up Minkowski spacetime" on p.1 of that paper confused with the DP spacetime on p.7, they are not the same thing at all. Googling for "rolled-up Minkowski" in quotes seems to indicate that this is the standard term for what this thread is calling "groundhog day spacetime".
Altabeh said:
Sometimes it is not the case, JeeseM. CTCs do not exist in a spacetime transformed from Minkowskin spacetime by a coordinate transformation!
No one said anything about obtaining CTCs by a "coordinate transformation", the idea is to perform a
topological identification of what would be two different spacelike surfaces in Minkowski spacetime, producing a spacetime with a different topology but the same curvature.
Altabeh said:
If they exist, they all seem to not exist for real because nothing has changed the physical nature of spacetime!
The curvature has not changed but the topology has; GR simply doesn't say anything about global topology, although it would be easy to make a slight modification to it by adding some rule about topology, and the resulting theory would be just as consistent with empirical observations. While the idea of producing CTCs by topology change isn't something anyone thinks is likely to be true in reality, there are some physicists who investigate the idea that the universe may have a nontrivial
spatial topology which could make it finite in spatial extent even if the curvature is zero or negative, see
here for example.