its been a really long time since I've had to solve ODEs for any class, so I'm just using the cookie cutter of an example in my old differential equation book to help. Please correct me if I am wrong in my work. (Note: I've disregarded the constants of integration for now).
The original equation is
[tex]K\frac{dp(t)}{dt} + \frac{p(t)}{R} = Q_0 \sin{(2\pi t)}[/tex]
I first solved the homogeneous equation
[tex]K\frac{dp(t)}{dt} + \frac{p(t)}{R} = 0[/tex]
[tex]K\frac{dp}{dt} = -\frac{1}{R} p[/tex]
[tex]p(t) = e^{-\frac{t}{RK}}[/tex]
Taking [itex]p_1 (t) = v(t)e^{-\frac{t}{RK}}[/itex], I substituted for p in the original inhomogeneous equation and simplified:
[tex]p_1' = v' e^{-\frac{t}{RK}} - \frac{1}{RK} ve^{-\frac{t}{RK}[/tex]
[tex]Kv' e^{-\frac{t}{RK} = Q_0 \sin{2\pi t}[/tex]
[tex]v' (t) = \frac{Q_0}{K}\frac{\sin{2\pi t}}{e^{-\frac{t}{RK}}}[/tex]
Upon integrating, one gets
[tex]v(t) = e^{\frac{t}{RK}} [\frac{Q_0 R\sin{2\pi t} - 2Q_0 R^2 K\pi\cos{2\pi t}}{4R^2 K^2\pi^2 + 1}][/tex]
Thus,
[tex]p(t) = v(t)e^{-\frac{t}{RK}} = \frac{Q_0 R\sin{2\pi t} - 2Q_0 R^2 K\pi\cos{2\pi t}}{4R^2 K^2\pi^2 + 1}[/tex]