Solving Gaussian Distribution Problem: Find (Δx)^2 and Uncertainty δp

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a wave function defined in the context of quantum mechanics, specifically focusing on calculating the variance (\( \Delta x \)^2) and the uncertainty in momentum (\( \delta p \)) for a particle in a given state. Participants are exploring the properties of Gaussian distributions and their implications in quantum mechanics.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the normalization of the wave function and the calculation of expectation values. There are questions about the setup of integrals for finding \( \langle x \rangle \) and \( \langle x^2 \rangle \), with some uncertainty expressed regarding the correct approach to these calculations.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into the normalization process and the setup of integrals, while others are still grappling with the calculations and expressing confusion about their approaches. There is a mix of attempts to clarify concepts and share hints without revealing complete solutions.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working within the constraints of a homework assignment, which may limit the amount of guidance they can provide to each other. The discussion reflects varying levels of understanding regarding the mathematical techniques involved in quantum mechanics.

Domnu
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Problem
Let us define a wave function \phi = A \exp \(\frac{-(x-x_0)^2}{4a^2}\) \exp \(\frac{i p_0 x}{\hbar}\) \exp(-i \omega_0 t). Show that (\Delta x)^2 = a^2. Also, calculate the uncertainty \delta p for a particle in the given state.

Attempt at a solution
I honestly have no idea as to how to proceed... could someone give me a hint without giving away the answer?
 
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Well what exactly is giving you problems?
Do you know how to normalize the wavefunction?
Do you know in theory how to calculate the expectation values, and uncertainties?
Or is all that fine and the mathematics is giving you problems?
 
Okay, well I know how to normalize the function... we just have

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} A^2 e^{\frac{-(x-x_0)^2}{2a^2}} = 1.

So if we let X = (x-x_0)/a, then we get

A^2 \cdot a \cdot \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-X^2/2} dX = 1,

and this just yields

A^2 \cdot a \cdot \sqrt{2\pi} = 1 \iff A = \frac{1}{a^{1/2} (2\pi)^{1/4}}.

So the wavefunction is just

\phi = \frac{1}{a^{1/2} (2\pi)^{1/4}} \cdot \exp \(\frac{-(x-x_0)^2}{4a^2}\) \exp \(\frac{i p_0 x}{\hbar}\) \exp(-i \omega_0 t)

From here, I tried to set (\Delta x)^2 = \langle x^2 \rangle - \langle x \rangle ^2, but nothing happened from there...
 
What did you find for <x> and <x^2>? It's not clear what you mean by nothing happened from there.
 
Well, I tried to calculate <x^2>, but it ended up that I got an integral of the form

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x^2 e^{x^2} dx

However, <x> was pretty easy to find... it's just x_0. I'm just wondering... maybe I set up the integral the wrong way... to find <x^2>, is it just

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \phi^* \hat{x}^2 \phi dx = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \phi^* x^2 \phi dx?
 
Yes that's what it should be. To do an integral of the form
\int{x^2e^{-x^2}}dx, here is a trick.
Let I(a) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-ax^2}dx. Then I&#039;(a)=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}-x^2e^{-ax^2}dx. You should already know I(a), so there shouldn't be a problem.
 
Wow that's clever! Thanks very much =)
 

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