Solving Integral Limit: \lim_{n \to \infty } \int_{0}^{1}

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the limit of an integral involving a continuous function f over the interval [0,1]. The specific limit in question is \(\lim_{n \to \infty } \int_{0}^{1} \frac{nf(x)}{n^{2} + x^{2}} dx\). Participants are exploring the implications of the continuity and boundedness of the function f.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the boundedness of f due to its continuity on a closed interval and consider the application of the Squeeze Theorem. There are questions about the implications of f being negative and how that affects the limit. Some participants express confusion about the problem and seek further clarification on related concepts, such as Riemann integrability.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants sharing ideas and questioning assumptions. While some guidance has been offered regarding the boundedness of f and potential approaches to the limit, there is no consensus on a definitive method or solution yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the problem is part of an exercise and express varying levels of confusion about the concepts involved, particularly regarding the relationship between the limit and the Riemann integrability of f.

testito
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hello guy ; i have a bizarre question in limit of integral , the question is :

determine :

[itex]\lim_{n \to \infty } \int_{0}^{1} \frac{nf(x)}{n^{2} + x^{2}} dx[/itex]

i don't know really when start and when i finish , please tell me how do this and if you can give me some tutorial for this scope !
 
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i forget to tell you that f is continue on interval [0,1] !
 
The only idea I have is to argue that since f is continuous on a closed interval, then f is bounded. Perhaps you could use the Squeeze Theorem?
 
Unit said:
The only idea I have is to argue that since f is continuous on a closed interval, then f is bounded. Perhaps you could use the Squeeze Theorem?
Unit has it right. Once you realize that f(x) is bounded, the computation becomes trivial (no need for the squeeze theorem).
 
I suggested squeeze because f(x) could be negative; saying A >= f and A --> L does not imply f --> L, unless f >= B and B --> L also.
 
can you determine the limit above exactly please !
look the second question in this exercise is :

prove that f is Riemann integrable in [0,1] and :

[itex]\int_{0}^{1} f(x) dx = \lim_{n \to \infty }\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n} f(\frac{k}{n})[/itex]

can this help you for help me !

i'm really confused !
 
Unit said:
I suggested squeeze because f(x) could be negative; saying A >= f and A --> L does not imply f --> L, unless f >= B and B --> L also.
I agree that the squeeze theorem would be the way to formally proceed. However, it all depends on how rigerous one needs to be. Since the question only wants us to "determine" rather than prove, I would be tempted to do it by inspection and argue that since f(x) and x are bounded on the domain of intergation and n is large ...
testito said:
can you determine the limit above exactly please !
look the second question in this exercise is :

prove that f is Riemann integrable in [0,1] and :

[itex]\int_{0}^{1} f(x) dx = \lim_{n \to \infty }\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n} f(\frac{k}{n})[/itex]

can this help you for help me !

i'm really confused !
We will not do your homework for you, but we will help you along the way.
 
We will not do your homework for you, but we will help you along the way.
is not a homework however , is just a bizarre exercise that i meet !
 

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