Solving Integral of sinc(x) for Definite Integral

  • Thread starter Thread starter Sistine
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integral
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The original poster attempts to prove the definite integral of sinc(x), specifically the integral from negative infinity to infinity of sin(x)/x, which is known to equal π. The discussion revolves around techniques for evaluating this integral.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss various methods including power series expansions, trigonometric identities, and complex analysis techniques such as closed curves and Cauchy's theorem. Some mention the use of Euler's formula and Leibniz's approach, while others reference related integrals like the Gaussian integral.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing with multiple approaches being explored. Some participants suggest alternative methods, while others share insights into the challenges of finding an anti-derivative for sinc(x).

Contextual Notes

There are references to the limitations of certain techniques and the nature of the sinc function, particularly regarding its lack of an elementary anti-derivative.

Sistine
Messages
18
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


I'm trying to prove the following definite integral of sinc(x)

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{\sin(x)}{x}dx=\pi


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I've tried power series expansions as well as trigonometric identities like

\frac{\cos 2x}{x}=\frac{\cos^2 x}{x}-\frac{\sin^2 x}{x}

I also looked at techniques used to integrate the definite integral
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-x^2}dx

which I know is solved by double integration and changing to polar coordinates. However, this does not help me integrate sinc(x).
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Well, I suppose you could do it by making a closed curve in the complex plane and using Caychy's theorem (and Jordan's lemma). There might be an easier way, but I can't think of any.
 
Think about euler's formula and leibniz. A 'simple' proof can be made this way.
 
\int_{0}^{\infty}\sin(x)\exp(-sx)dx=\frac{1}{1+s^2}

Integrate both sides from s = 0 to infinity to obtain the result.
 
sinc(x) = sin(x)
x
has no anti-derivative
 
ahmedxahmed said:
sinc(x) = sin(x)
x
has no anti-derivative

no elementary anti-derivative :wink:
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K