Solving Integral Proof: Let a<b<c, f:[a,c]->R

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the proof of the integral property for a Riemann integrable function defined on the interval [a,c], specifically addressing the equation \(\int_a^c f(x) \, dx = \int_a^b f(x) \, dx + \int_b^c f(x) \, dx\). Participants explore the proof's details, seek clarifications, and propose alternative approaches, focusing on the use of characteristic functions and Riemann sums.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants express confusion about the proof's reliance on characteristic functions and seek to understand how \(\int_a^c C(x) f(x) \, dx = \int_a^b f(x) \, dx\) holds true.
  • Others suggest that the integral from [b,c] contributes zero due to \(C(x) = 0\) in that interval, leading to the conclusion that the integral of \(C(x)f(x)\) over [b,c] is also zero.
  • A participant proposes that a more elementary proof using the definition of Riemann integration could be satisfactory, indicating a preference for clarity over brevity.
  • Some participants argue about the circularity of certain arguments, questioning whether the proof relies on assumptions that need to be established.
  • One participant attempts to clarify the definition of characteristic functions and their role in the proof, suggesting that understanding this concept is crucial for grasping the argument.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the proof's clarity or validity. There are competing views on the sufficiency of the provided justifications, with some finding them inadequate while others assert their correctness.

Contextual Notes

Some participants highlight the need for rigorous proof techniques, such as upper and lower sums, while others express a desire for simpler arguments that do not rely on Riemann sums. The discussion reflects varying levels of understanding regarding the concepts involved, particularly the characteristic functions.

Who May Find This Useful

This discussion may be useful for students and educators in mathematics, particularly those studying Riemann integration and seeking to understand proofs involving integrals and characteristic functions.

e(ho0n3
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I'm having a hard time understanding the proof of the following: Let a < b < c and let f: [a,c] -> R be Riemann integrable on [a,b], [b,c] and [a,c]. Then

\int_a^c f(x) \, dx = \int_a^b f(x) \, dx + \int_b^c f(x) \, dx.

Proof. Let C and C' be the characteristic functions of [a,b] and [b,c] respectively, defined on [a,c]. Then f = C f + C' f and the addition formula above follows from the linearity of the integral.

This is such a facile proof. Sigh. I'm trying to fill in the missing details: I know that since f = C f + C' f, then

\int_a^c f(x) \, dx = \int_a^c C(x) f(x) \, dx + \int_a^c C&#039;(x) f(x) \, dx

where I've used the fact that characteristic functions are Riemann integrable and products of Riemann integrable functions are Riemann integrable. Now how would I show, without much fuss, that

\int_a^c C(x) f(x) \, dx = \int_a^b f(x) \, dx

for example?
 
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e(ho0n3 said:
I'm having a hard time understanding the proof of the following: Let a < b < c and let f: [a,c] -> R be Riemann integrable on [a,b], [b,c] and [a,c]. Then

\int_a^c f(x) \, dx = \int_a^b f(x) \, dx + \int_b^c f(x) \, dx.

Proof. Let C and C' be the characteristic functions of [a,b] and [b,c] respectively, defined on [a,c]. Then f = C f + C' f and the addition formula above follows from the linearity of the integral.

This is such a facile proof. Sigh. I'm trying to fill in the missing details: I know that since f = C f + C' f, then

\int_a^c f(x) \, dx = \int_a^c C(x) f(x) \, dx + \int_a^c C&#039;(x) f(x) \, dx

where I've used the fact that characteristic functions are Riemann integrable and products of Riemann integrable functions are Riemann integrable. Now how would I show, without much fuss, that

\int_a^c C(x) f(x) \, dx = \int_a^b f(x) \, dx

for example?

Just use the fact that C(x)=0 in the interval [b,c], so that C(x)f(x)=0 in this interval, and its integral=0.
 
mathman said:
Just use the fact that C(x)=0 in the interval [b,c], so that C(x)f(x)=0 in this interval, and its integral=0.
Where do I use that fact exactly?
 
Adding what mathman said to the end of the proof would be sufficient, but a rigorous proof could be done using upper and lower sums.
 
Yeah. I decided to ditch that proof. I found a more elementary but longer proof using the definition of Riemann integration, which I found satisfactory.
 
Why don't you find the proof in the OP satisfactory?
 
As I wrote, I don't know why

\int_a^c C(x) f(x) \, dx = \int_a^b f(x) \, dx

is true.
 
But you were given two justifications as to why that is true. The Riemann sums of C(x)f(x) will always be zero on [b,c].
 
Those two justifications did nothing for me. I was hoping someone would give a simple argument that would not use Riemann sums. Oh well. Thanks anyways.
 
  • #10
e(ho0n3 said:
Where do I use that fact exactly?
The integral from a to c is the sum of the integral from a to b and the integral from b to c. From a to b, C(x)=1, so the integral of Cf = integral of f. From b to c, C(x)=0, so Cf=0 and the integral = 0.
 
  • #11
mathman said:
The integral from a to c is the sum of the integral from a to b and the integral from b to c. From a to b, C(x)=1, so the integral of Cf = integral of f. From b to c, C(x)=0, so Cf=0 and the integral = 0.

That's a circular argument: You're using the very fact I want to prove.
 
  • #12
I don't know whether you will find the following proof useful, if you haven't already seen it before, but here it is an elementary proof of

\int_a^c f(x) \, dx = \int_a^b f(x) \, dx + \int_b^c f(x) \, dx

Proof:

Let a<c<b. Since the reiman sums do not depend on the way we may partition the interval [a,b] we can partition this interval first into two subintervals, let them

[a,c] and [c,b] where c is the same point we are using in the integral

Then we may do the following partitition to both intervals

a=x_0&lt;x_1&lt;x_2&lt;...&lt;x_k=c and c=x_k&lt;x_{k+1}&lt;...&lt;x_n=b

So, we can form the following integral sums for both intervals:


\sum_{i=1}^kf(\delta_i)\triangle x_i

\sum_{i=k}^nf(\delta_i)\triangle x_i

where \delta_i \in [x_{i-1},x_i] and

\triangle x_i=x_i-x_{i-1}


Now, since we are dealing here with finite sums, then we have the following relation


\sum_{i=1}^nf(\delta_i)\triangle x_i=\sum_{i=1}^kf(\delta_i)\triangle x_i + \sum_{i=k}^nf(\delta_i)\triangle x_i

Now, if max \triangle x_i-&gt;0 then taking the limit on both sides,we get our desired result.

A simmilar argument follows in two other cases when c is not between a and b.
 
  • #13
e(ho0n3 said:
That's a circular argument: You're using the very fact I want to prove.

It is NOT circular. I don't see what is needed to prove, unless you need a proof that multiplication by 1 leaves the function unchange and multiplication by 0 results in 0.
 
  • #14
mathman said:
It is NOT circular. I don't see what is needed to prove, unless you need a proof that multiplication by 1 leaves the function unchange and multiplication by 0 results in 0.

I appologize to just throw stuff here, but i think that e(ho0n3's real question is what is a characteristic function. I think he is dealing with this problem, and hence it is not clear to him why C(x)=1 in [a,b] and C(x)=0 on [b,c]

I think that a characteristic function of an interval say

[x_1,x_2]

is as follows


C(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}1,&amp;\mbox{ if }<br /> x\in[x_1,x2]\\0, &amp; \mbox{ if } x_2&lt;x&lt;x_1\end{array}\right.

So, this automatically would mean that if C(x) is your characteristic function on the interval [a,b] then C(x)=1 when x is in [a,b] and C(x)=0 when x is in [b,c] the same for C'(x)=1 if x is in [b,c] and C'(x)=0 when x is in [a,b]

P.s. I once more appologize for i am only a freshman, and my advice shall probably turn out to be helpless and inappropriate.
 
Last edited:
  • #15
mathman said:
It is NOT circular. I don't see what is needed to prove, unless you need a proof that multiplication by 1 leaves the function unchange and multiplication by 0 results in 0.
Well, these two would also follow from the axioms of a field, right?

Unless one wanted not to rely on algebra at all, but rather on dedekind cuts etc.
 

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