Solving Integration by Parts Problems

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around using integration by parts to derive relationships between integrals of a function and its inverse. The original poster presents a problem involving integration by parts, specifically focusing on the manipulation of integrals with limits of integration.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the application of integration by parts to derive specific integral identities. Questions arise regarding the manipulation of the inverse function and the role of the derivative in the integration process. There is also an exploration of how to transition between different forms of the integral.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, offering suggestions and clarifying steps. Some guidance has been provided regarding the simplification of expressions, and there is an ongoing exploration of the relationships between the integrals presented.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of potential confusion regarding the use of the derivative and the inverse function in the context of integration. The discussion reflects a learning environment where assumptions and definitions are being questioned.

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Okay, so here is the problem I have, which I am getting tripped up on for some reason:
a) Use integration by parts to show that
[tex]\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx = bf(b) - af(a) - \int_{a}^{b} xf'(x) dx[/tex]
this was pretty easy, just regular old integration by parts with limits of integration.

b) Use the result in part (a) to show that if y = f(x) then
[tex]\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx = bf(b) - af(a) - \int_{f(a)}^{f(b)} f^{-1}(y) dy[/tex]
I know that the inverse function of f(x) will leave me with x, which gets me to
[tex]\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx = bf(b) - af(a) - \int_{a}^{b} f^{-1}(y) f'(x)[/tex]
but then what happens with f'(x)? For some reason I'm just totally spacing this out.
 
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You want the f'(x). It appears in your first formula. Just simplify f-1(y).
 
I think you are working the opposite way. Basically what I'm trying to do is get from
[tex]\int_a^b f(x)dx[/tex]

to (if we let [tex]y = f(x)[/tex])

[tex]\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx = bf(b) - af(a) - \int_{f(a)}^{f(b)} f^{-1}(y) dy[/tex]

to (if we let [tex]\alpha = f(a)[/tex] and [tex]\beta = f(b)[/tex])

[tex]\int_{\alpha}^{\beta} f^{-1}(x)dx = \beta f^{-1}(\beta) - \alpha f^{-1}(\alpha) - \int_{f^{-1}(\alpha)}^{f^{-1}(\beta)} f(x)dx[/tex]
 
Last edited:
From part a it should be obvious that it's sufficient to show that the two integrals are equal.

So, what happens if you try to integrate
[tex]\int_a^b xf'(x) dx[/tex]
by subsitution using
[tex]u=f(x)[/tex]
?
 
Last edited:

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