Solving the Euler-Lagrange Equation for Calculus of Variations

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around solving the Euler-Lagrange equation within the context of the calculus of variations, specifically focusing on an integral involving the terms (y')² and y². The original poster expresses uncertainty about their understanding and the steps taken to derive a solution.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to apply the Euler-Lagrange equation to the given integral, expressing concern about the rearrangement of terms and the introduction of differentials. They question whether their derivation of y'' = y is correct and if there are alternative methods to approach the problem.

Discussion Status

Some participants provide feedback on the original poster's steps, with one confirming the validity of a specific differentiation step. There appears to be a mix of validation and inquiry regarding the methods used, but no explicit consensus on the correctness of the overall approach has been reached.

Contextual Notes

The original poster mentions a classroom context where simplifications were made, indicating potential constraints in their understanding of the general applicability of those methods. There is also a note of caution from the lecturer regarding differentiation, which remains a point of discussion.

insynC
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Just did this in class today and was doing a problem to see if I understood it and I'm not sure I did. Thanks for any help

Homework Statement



Solve the Euler equation to make the following integral:

(integral from x1->x2)

∫ [(y')² + y²] dx

Homework Equations



Euler-Lagrange equation

∂F/∂y - d/dx (∂F/∂y') = 0

The Attempt at a Solution



Clearly F = (y')² + y²

In class we had been rearranging the integral so that ∂F/∂y = 0, which made the problem much simpler. I was unable to do this here as there was no apparent way to introduce ds to swap y' for x'. This was my concern as, although I didn't think all equations would be this simple, I thought most would reduce.

So instead I proceeded as follows:

∂F/∂y - d/dx (∂F/∂y') = 2y - d/dx (2y') = 2y - 2y'' = 0 => y'' = y

And this is easy enough to solve. But I'm concerned I've made a mistake getting there.

Have I made a mistake up to here or is there a better way to proceed?

Thanks
 
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AFAIK this is the best you can do. You can't eliminate the dF/dy term in general.
 
Cheers. I'm a bit rusty on my calculus, but is there anything wrong with the step:

d/dx(2y') = 2y''

My lecturer made note to be careful of the d/dx part, but I don't think that applies here, just want to check.
 
That's just fine.
 

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