Solving the Fourier Series of a 2π-Periodic Function

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves finding the Fourier series coefficients for an odd 2π-periodic function defined piecewise. The function is specified as f(x) = x² for 0 < x < π and f(x) = -x² for -π < x < 0. Participants are tasked with determining the coefficients a₀, aₙ, and bₙ in the Fourier series representation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the challenges of integrating a piecewise function and question the evenness of the function, with some suggesting that bₙ might equal zero. Others propose breaking the integration into segments to accommodate the piecewise definition.

Discussion Status

There is ongoing exploration of the integration limits and the implications of the function's oddness on the coefficients. Some participants have provided guidance on how to approach the integration, while others are sharing their results and questioning the feasibility of their findings.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of specifying integration limits when dealing with piecewise functions. There is also mention of convergence properties of Fourier coefficients, which may influence the discussion on the validity of the computed coefficients.

struggles
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Homework Statement


The odd 2π-periodic function f(x) is defined by
f(x) = x2 π > x > 0
-x2 −π<x<0
Find the coefficient bn in the Fourier series
f(x) = a0/2 + ∑(an cos(nx) + bn sin(nx)).
What are the values of the coefficients a0 and an and why?

Homework Equations


bn = 1/π ∫ f(x)sin(nx)
an = 1/π ∫f(x)cos(nx)

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
I'm unsure what to do as the function changes so you cannot integrate between pi and -pi like you would normally. Also as the function is even would bn = 0?
 
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struggles said:
I'm unsure what to do as the function changes so you cannot integrate between pi and -pi like you would normally.
The function doesn't "change" - it is defined in a piecewise manner. So, you just have to break up the integration interval accordingly.

struggles said:
Also as the function is even would bn = 0?
Are you sure the function is even?
 
struggles said:

Homework Statement


The odd 2π-periodic function f(x) is defined by
f(x) = x2 π > x > 0
-x2 −π<x<0
Find the coefficient bn in the Fourier series
f(x) = a0/2 + ∑(an cos(nx) + bn sin(nx)).
What are the values of the coefficients a0 and an and why?

Homework Equations


bn = 1/π ∫ f(x)sin(nx)
an = 1/π ∫f(x)cos(nx)

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
I'm unsure what to do as the function changes so you cannot integrate between pi and -pi like you would normally. Also as the function is even would bn = 0?

What are the integration limits? [You should always indicate this; it is an important part of your analysis.] Have you never before performed integrations of piece-wise funcctions (defined by different formulas in different regions? Why do you say in your final sentence that the function is even?
 
so would i just break it up to get bn = 1/π[∫π0 x2sin(nx) + ∫0 -x2sin(nx)]
 
struggles said:
so would i just break it up to get bn = 1/π[∫π0 x2sin(nx) + ∫0 -x2sin(nx)]
Yes, and if you give it a little thought, computing one of the integrals (for each n) is all the work you need to do.
 
Last edited:
so when integrating the 2 integrals are the same except for the sign changes. This means when n = odd I get bn = 2nπ2 - 8n3
and when n = even bn = -2nπ2. Does that sound feasible?
 
struggles said:
so when integrating the 2 integrals are the same except for the sign changes. This means when n = odd I get bn = 2nπ2 - 8n3
and when n = even bn = -2nπ2. Does that sound feasible?
As your function is odd, ##\displaystyle b_n=\frac{2}{\pi}\int_0^{\pi} x²\sin(nx) \, dx##.
I get something different for the ##b_n##, but I can make a computation error just as you can.
 
I've re-done it to get (-1)n(-π2n-2n3)-(2n3) Thank you for all your help. Also would an = 0?
 
  • #10
struggles said:
I've re-done it to get (-1)n(-π2n-2n3)-(2n3) Thank you for all your help
Still different from what I got, but again, you may have the correct result. Difficult to check without seeing the calculation.
struggles said:
Also would an = 0?
##a_n## is the definite integral of an odd function over ##(-\pi,+\pi)##. The integrals between ##(-\pi,0]## and ##[0,+\pi)## cancel out. So yes, ##a_n=0##.
 
  • #11
struggles said:
I've re-done it to get (-1)n(-π2n-2n3)-(2n3) Thank you for all your help. Also would an = 0?
Come to think of it, the Fourier coefficients of a continuous function (among others, but that is of no importance here) on ##[-\pi, +\pi]## satisfy a number of convergence properties.
For example, ##\displaystyle \lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty}{a_n}=0,\ \lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty}{b_n}=0,\ \sum_{n=0}^\infty { |a_n|}^{2}<\infty, \sum_{n=1}^\infty { |b_n|}^{2}<\infty##.

Clearly the ##b_n## you got do not satisfy these properties.
 
Last edited:

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