Solving the Limit of (1-cos x)sin(1/x)

  • Thread starter Thread starter nietzsche
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Limit
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The limit of the expression (1 - cos x)sin(1/x) as x approaches 0 is definitively 0. This conclusion is reached by applying the Squeeze Theorem, where it is established that both bounding terms, - (1 - cos x) and 1 - cos x, converge to 0 as x approaches 0. The oscillatory behavior of sin(1/x) is effectively contained within these bounds, confirming that the limit of the entire expression is 0.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of limits in calculus
  • Familiarity with the Squeeze Theorem
  • Knowledge of trigonometric functions and their properties
  • Basic algebraic manipulation skills
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Squeeze Theorem in detail to understand its applications
  • Explore the behavior of trigonometric functions near their limits
  • Learn about oscillatory functions and their limits
  • Practice solving limits involving trigonometric identities
USEFUL FOR

Students studying calculus, particularly those focusing on limits and trigonometric functions, as well as educators seeking to reinforce concepts related to the Squeeze Theorem.

nietzsche
Messages
185
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Find the following limit:

<br /> \lim_{x \to 0} (1-\text{cos }x)\text{sin }\frac{1}{x}<br />

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



(1-cos x) -> 0 as x -> 0. sin (1/x) oscillates infinitely many times as x -> 0.

intuition tells me that the limit is 0, but how do i show that?

some ideas i have are using the fact that |sin(1/x)| =< 1, but I'm not sure.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Try the squeeze theorem with something that converges to zero like \frac{1-\cos{x}}{x}.
 
i ended up doing this.

<br /> \begin{align*}<br /> -1 &amp;\leq&amp; \text{sin }\frac{1}{x} &amp;\leq&amp; 1\\<br /> -(1-\text{cos }x) &amp;\leq&amp; (1-\text{cos }x)(\text{sin }\frac{1}{x}) &amp;\leq&amp; 1- \text{cos }x<br /> \end{align*}<br />

since both of the terms on the side equal 0 at x=0, by the squeeze theorem, the middle term also goes to 0.
 
That's how I would have done it. Well done!
 

Similar threads

Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 40 ·
2
Replies
40
Views
4K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K