Solving the Pendulum Problem: Find Speed at Bottom of Path

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves a pendulum with a length of 1.2 meters, initially displaced at an angle of 40 degrees from the vertical. The objective is to determine the speed of the pendulum bob as it passes through the lowest point of its swing.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the conservation of mechanical energy, relating potential energy (PE) and kinetic energy (KE) at different points in the pendulum's motion. There is an exploration of how to apply the equations for PE and KE to find the speed at the bottom of the swing.

Discussion Status

Participants have engaged in a back-and-forth regarding the application of energy conservation principles. Some guidance has been provided on correcting the equations used, and there is an acknowledgment of the need to account for mass in the energy equations before simplifying.

Contextual Notes

There is a focus on ensuring the correct application of energy conservation, with some participants questioning the setup of the equations and the treatment of mass in the calculations.

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Homework Statement



The bob of a pendulum 1.2m long is pulled aside so the string is 40 degrees from the vertical. When the bob is released, with what speed will it pass through the bottom of its path?

Homework Equations



PE=mgh
KE=(mv^2)/2

The Attempt at a Solution



Well, I started out with cos 40=x/1.2 and found x to be approximately .92, but I don't exactly know where to go from there.
 
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Well, you wrote down the expressions for KE and PE. What do you think you should do with them? Think conservation.
 
Wait...PE+KE is always a constant, right? So when the bob is first released at 40 degrees, it as zero kinetic energy, and PE=mgh=9.8(1.2-.92)~=2.75, where .92 is the solution to "cos 40=x/1.2". So, at the bottom of its path, it's height will be zero...right? Which leaves me with m(9.8)(0)+.5(m)(v^2)=2.75. Can I just eliminate "m" from the equation and solve from there?
 
You're close.

bfr said:
PE=mgh=9.8(1.2-.92)~=2.75

There should be an m on the right hand side. You've only accounted for the gh.

Which leaves me with m(9.8)(0)+.5(m)(v^2)=2.75. Can I just eliminate "m" from the equation and solve from there?

You can eliminate the m, but only after you make the correction on the right side of the equation. Do you see what I'm talking about?
 
Oh, yeah...thanks!

So m(9.8)(0)+.5(m)(v^2)=2.75m -> .5v^2=2.75 -> v~=2.35 ?
 
Yes, that's it.
 

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