Solving the Uniform Rod Problem: Calculating Force on a Point Charge

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the force exerted by a uniform rod of charge with length L and net charge +Q on a point charge q positioned at (0,y). The force in the x-direction is determined to be zero due to symmetry. The force in the y-direction is expressed as F(y) = ∫ kλq cos(Θ) dl / (l² + y²) from [-L/2, L/2]. The final expression for the force is derived as F(y) = kqQ / (y√(y² + (L/2)²)), with a suggestion to express dF in terms of x and y for easier integration.

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  • Concept of linear charge density (λ = dQ/dl)
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venom_h
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_______-^y
________l
________l
________l
________l
________________
l________________l--------> x

Sorry for the bad picture, but suppose there's a uniform rod of charge has a length L and a net charge +Q, find the force that this rod exert on a point charge q placed at (0,y).

Ok, I found by symmetry that the F(x) is 0.
[tex]\lambda[/tex]=dQ/dl

So, F(y) = [tex]\int[/tex] k[tex]\lambda[/tex]qcos[tex]\Theta[/tex](dl)/ (l^2 + y^2) , [-L/2, L/2]

And since y/r=cos[tex]\Theta[/tex], r= ysec[tex]\Theta[/tex], where r = (l^2 + y^2)

Then it boils down to 2kqy[tex]\lambda[/tex][tex]\int[/tex] (dl)/ (y^3(sec[tex]\Theta[/tex])^3) , [0, L/2]

Then I don't know how to carry on without using the integral table...
But it should be something like this and i don't know why:
F(y) = 2kqy[tex]\lambda[/tex][tex]\int[/tex](y(sec[tex]\Theta[/tex])^2d[tex]\Theta[/tex])/ (y^3(sec[tex]\Theta[/tex])^3)
and gives 2kqy[tex]\lambda[/tex][tex]\int[/tex](cos[tex]\Theta[/tex]) d[tex]\Theta[/tex]
.... ans= kqQ/ y[tex]\sqrt{y^2 + (L/2)^2}[/tex]

Anyways, my question is, without using the integral table, how do people actually move on to that next step?

Thanks
 
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venom_h said:
_______-^y
________l
________l
________l
________l
________________
l________________l--------> x

Sorry for the bad picture, but suppose there's a uniform rod of charge has a length L and a net charge +Q, find the force that this rod exert on a point charge q placed at (0,y).

Ok, I found by symmetry that the F(x) is 0.
[tex]\lambda[/tex]=dQ/dl

So, F(y) = [tex]\int[/tex] k[tex]\lambda[/tex]qcos[tex]\Theta[/tex](dl)/ (l^2 + y^2) , [-L/2, L/2]

And since y/r=cos[tex]\Theta[/tex], r= ysec[tex]\Theta[/tex], where r = (l^2 + y^2)

Then it boils down to 2kqy[tex]\lambda[/tex][tex]\int[/tex] (dl)/ (y^3(sec[tex]\Theta[/tex])^3) , [0, L/2]

Then I don't know how to carry on without using the integral table...
Get rid of those angles! You should have an expression for dF in terms of x & y (I use x as the coordinate of the line charge element):
[tex]dF = \frac{kq\lambda}{(y^2 + x^2)}\cos\theta \; dx = \frac{kq \lambda x}{(y^2 + x^2)^{3/2}} \; dx[/tex]

You should have no problem integrating this without a table.
 

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