Spin matrix representation in any arbitrary direction

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PhysicsTruth
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Homework Statement
Find the representation in which the component of spin along a direction ##\hat{n}## is diagonal, where ##\hat{n}## is a vector in the ##x-z## plane, making an angle ##\theta## with the ##z## axis.
Relevant Equations
##\sigma \cdot \hat{n} = \begin{pmatrix} cos(\theta) & sin(\theta)e^{-i\phi} \\ sin(\theta)e^{i\phi} & -cos(\theta) \end{pmatrix}##

##\sigma _z = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0\\ 0 & -1 \end{pmatrix}##
I've tried to use the 1st equation as a matrix to determine, but it clearly isn't a diagonal matrix. My guess is that I need to find the spin matrix along the direction ##\hat{n}##, but do I need to find the eigenstates of ##\sigma \cdot \hat{n}## first and check if they form a diagonal matrix or not? Can someone help me in figuring out how to proceed?
 
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PeroK said:
The matrix you've found would then be diagonal in the basis of its eigenvectors. That might be what is intended.
To be honest, the matrix doesn't have non-trivial solutions explicitly. It's only when one of the values is decided can the other value be determined. So, it might be diagonal only for a particular value of ##\theta## or ##\phi##. Also, ##\phi## hasn't been mentioned explicitly, so can't really proceed with that even.
 
PhysicsTruth said:
To be honest, the matrix doesn't have non-trivial solutions explicitly. It's only when one of the values is decided can the other value be determined. So, it might be diagonal only for a particular value of ##\theta## or ##\phi##. Also, ##\phi## hasn't been mentioned explicitly, so can't really proceed with that even.
It's manifestly Hermitian so must have an orthonormal eigenbasis. Moreover, it's physically identical to ##S_z## etc. So must have an eigenbasis.
 
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vanhees71 said:
Another way is to think about how rotations act on spinors an tgen use the rotation which maps ##\vec{e}_z## to ##\vec{n}##.
Okay, so the rotation around any unit axis ##\hat{n}## of a spinor is given by-
##Icos(\theta /2) + i(\hat{n} \cdot \sigma)sin(\theta /2)##
So here, it's getting rotated about the ##y## axis, so should I get the representation as required if I use this rotation form?
 
Can someone just tell me how to write a Spin Matrix along any vector rotated by an angle ##\theta## from ##z## axis in terms of the eigenbasis of ##\sigma _z## Pauli spin matrix? Is it ##cos(\theta /2) |+> + sin(\theta /2) |->##, where ##|+>, |->## are eigen vectors of ##\sigma _z## ?
 
PhysicsTruth said:
Can someone just tell me how to write a Spin Matrix along any vector rotated by an angle ##\theta## from ##z## axis in terms of the eigenbasis of ##\sigma _z## Pauli spin matrix? Is it ##cos(\theta /2) |+> + sin(\theta /2) |->##, where ##|+>, |->## are eigen vectors of ##\sigma _z## ?
In that case, I can just perform an Unitary transformation to make it diagonal. So I need to know this.
 
PhysicsTruth said:
Can someone just tell me how to write a Spin Matrix along any vector rotated by an angle ##\theta## from ##z## axis in terms of the eigenbasis of ##\sigma _z## Pauli spin matrix? Is it ##cos(\theta /2) |+> + sin(\theta /2) |->##, where ##|+>, |->## are eigen vectors of ##\sigma _z## ?
You already have the matrix in your original post. For the specific case of a direction in the x-z plane you have ##\phi =0##.
 
PhysicsTruth said:
Can someone just tell me how to write a Spin Matrix along any vector rotated by an angle ##\theta## from ##z## axis in terms of the eigenbasis of ##\sigma _z## Pauli spin matrix? Is it ##cos(\theta /2) |+> + sin(\theta /2) |->##, where ##|+>, |->## are eigen vectors of ##\sigma _z## ?
Yes, that's the eigenvector corresponding to eigenvalue ##1##. You need the second eigenvector corresponding to eigenvalue ##-1##.
 
PhysicsTruth said:
In that case, I can just perform an Unitary transformation to make it diagonal. So I need to know this.
You don't need to calculate the transformation to the eigenbasis, as you know it takes the matrix takes the same form as the Pauli matrix for ##S_z## in that basis.
 
So, would the representation just be ##\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0\\ 0 & -1 \end{pmatrix}## in that case?
 
PhysicsTruth said:
So, would the representation just be ##\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0\\ 0 & -1 \end{pmatrix}## in that case?
I did get this after a wholesome unitary transformation to the new eigenbasis, which is the same as the ##\sigma _z## matrix.
 
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PhysicsTruth said:
So, would the representation just be ##\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0\\ 0 & -1 \end{pmatrix}## in that case?
Yes, once you have the eigenvalues and vectors you know the matrix in that eigenbasis. Although, it can't hurt to grind out the transformation just to check!
 
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PeroK said:
Yes, once you have the eigenvalues and vectors you know the matrix in that eigenbasis. Although, it can't hurt to grind out the transformation just to check!
Thanks. I have some problem to understand this intuitively. Can you just explain a bit as to why we end up getting this sole matrix when we change our basis and fix it along a direction?
 
PhysicsTruth said:
Thanks. I have some problem to understand this intuitively. Can you just explain a bit as to why we end up getting this sole matrix when we change our basis and fix it along a direction?
The physical explanation is that the z-axis is an arbitrary choice. Any other direction is physically equivalent (and, indeed, could be chosen as the z-axis). The formalism of spin about any direction must be equivalent to the formalism about the z-axis.

Mathematically, the action of an operator is completely determined by its action on a basis. And, the action on its eigenbasis is "diagonal". You don't have to transform bases, you can study the action of the operator on that eigenbasis directly.
 
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