Square-integrable functions as a vector space

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of square-integrable functions and their classification as a vector space. The original poster seeks to demonstrate that the set of all square-integrable functions forms a vector space and questions whether the set of all normalized functions also qualifies as a vector space.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the conditions under which the sum of two square-integrable functions remains square-integrable, referencing the Schwarz inequality. They discuss the implications of linear combinations of functions and the necessity of checking vector space axioms.

Discussion Status

Participants have engaged in a detailed examination of the properties of square-integrable functions, with some suggesting that the set of normalized functions does not form a vector space due to the absence of a zero element. There is an ongoing exploration of how to rigorously prove this assertion.

Contextual Notes

There is a focus on the implications of normalization and the conditions required for functions to remain within the defined space. Participants note the trivial nature of some vector space axioms while emphasizing the need for a zero element in vector space definitions.

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Homework Statement



(a) Show that the set of all square-integrable functions is a vector space. Is the set of all normalised functions a vector space?

(b) Show that the integral ##\int^{a}_{b} f(x)^{*} g(x) dx## satisfies the conditions for an inner product.

Homework Equations



The main problem is to show that the sum of two square-integrable functions is itself square-integrable.

Use Schwarz inequality: ##| \int^{a}_{b} f(x)^{*} g(x) dx| \leq \sqrt{ \int^{a}_{b} |f(x)|^{2} dx \int^{a}_{b} |g(x)|^{2} dx}##

The Attempt at a Solution



(a) Let ##f(x)## and ##g(x)## be square-integrable functions. Then,

##\int^{a}_{b} | \alpha f(x) + \beta g(x)|^2 dx##

##= \int^{a}_{b} [\ | \alpha f(x) |^2 + | \beta f(x) |^2 + \alpha^{*} f(x)^{*} \beta g(x) + \alpha f(x) \beta^{*} g(x)^{*} ] dx ##

##= |\alpha|^2 \int^{a}_{b} | f(x) |^2 dx + |\beta|^2 \int^{a}_{b} | f(x) |^2 dx + \alpha^{*} \beta \int^{a}_{b} f(x)^{*} g(x) dx + \alpha \beta^{*} \int^{a}_{b} f(x) g(x)^{*} dx ##

The first two terms are already square-integrable. So, all I have to do now is to show that the last two terms are square-integrable.

Can you suggest how I can use the Schwarz inequality over the last two terms?

P.S. : The last two terms are complex conjugates of each other, and the sum of two complex conjugates is a real number. Does it somehow prove that the last two terms form a square-integrable combination?
 
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The last two terms together are real. For any complex number ##z##, ##{\rm Re}(z) \leq |z|##. Then apply the Schwarz inequality.
 
Alright, here's my attempt.

Let ##f(x)## and ##g(x)## be square-integrable functions. Then,

##\int^{a}_{b} | \alpha f(x) + \beta g(x)|^2 dx##

##= \int^{a}_{b} [\ | \alpha f(x) |^2 + | \beta f(x) |^2 + \alpha^{*} f(x)^{*} \beta g(x) + \alpha f(x) \beta^{*} g(x)^{*} ] dx ##

##= |\alpha|^2 \int^{a}_{b} | f(x) |^2 dx + |\beta|^2 \int^{a}_{b} | f(x) |^2 dx + \alpha^{*} \beta \int^{a}_{b} f(x)^{*} g(x) dx + \alpha \beta^{*} \int^{a}_{b} f(x) g(x)^{*} dx ##

##= |\alpha|^2 \int^{a}_{b} | f(x) |^2 dx + |\beta|^2 \int^{a}_{b} | f(x) |^2 dx + \alpha^{*} \beta \int^{a}_{b} f(x)^{*} g(x) dx + ( \alpha^{*} \beta \int^{a}_{b} f(x)^{*} g(x) dx )^* ##

##= |\alpha|^2 \int^{a}_{b} | f(x) |^2 dx + |\beta|^2 \int^{a}_{b} | f(x) |^2 dx + 2\ {\rm Re} ( \alpha^{*} \beta \int^{a}_{b} f(x)^{*} g(x) dx ) ##

##\leq |\alpha|^2 \int^{a}_{b} | f(x) |^2 dx + |\beta|^2 \int^{a}_{b} | f(x) |^2 dx + 2\ | \alpha^{*} \beta \int^{a}_{b} f(x)^{*} g(x) dx | ##

##\leq |\alpha|^2 \int^{a}_{b} | f(x) |^2 dx + |\beta|^2 \int^{a}_{b} | f(x) |^2 dx + 2\ | \alpha^{*} \beta | \sqrt{ \int^{a}_{b} |f(x)|^{2} dx \int^{a}_{b} |g(x)|^{2} dx} ##

This is a combination of square-integrable functions, so that ##\alpha f(x) + \beta g(x)## is a square-integrable function.Let ##\int^{a}_{b} |f(x)|^2 dx = 1## and ##\int^{a}_{b} |g(x)|^2 dx = 1##. Therefore,

##\int^{a}_{b} | \alpha f(x) + \beta g(x)|^2 dx##

##\leq |\alpha|^2 \int^{a}_{b} | f(x) |^2 dx + |\beta|^2 \int^{a}_{b} | f(x) |^2 dx + 2\ | \alpha^{*} \beta | \sqrt{ \int^{a}_{b} |f(x)|^{2} dx \int^{a}_{b} |g(x)|^{2} dx} ##

##\leq |\alpha|^2 + |\beta|^2 + 2\ | \alpha^{*} \beta |##

##\leq |\alpha|^2 + \alpha^{*} \beta + \alpha \beta^{*} + |\beta|^2##

##\leq | \alpha + \beta |^2##.

How can this help to show that the set of all normalised functions is a vector space?
 
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failexam said:
How can this help to show that the set of all normalised functions is a vector space?

This shows you that any (finite) linear combination of functions in the space is also in the space. You should check the other axioms of a vector space as well, but it is rather trivial.
 
How exactly can this show any (finite) linear combination of functions in this space is also in this space?

For one thing, I've only shown that, given ##\int^{a}_{b} |f(x)|^2 dx = 1## and ##\int^{a}_{b} |g(x)|^2 dx = 1##,

##\int^{a}_{b} | \alpha f(x) + \beta g(x)|^2 dx \leq | \alpha + \beta |^2##, not that ##\int^{a}_{b} | \alpha f(x) + \beta g(x)|^2 dx = 1##.

That does not quite prove that the set of all normalised functions form a vector space, does it (skipping the other axioms of a vector space, which are rather trivial to prove for this case)?
 
Ah right, I missed the "normalised". It is trivial to shot that it is not a vector space.
 
Haven't I already shown that the set of all normalised functions is ##\textit{not}## a vector space when I proved the following:

if ##\int_{a}^{b} |f(x)|^{2} dx = 1## and ##\int_{a}^{b} |g(x)|^{2} dx = 1##, then ##\int^{a}_{b} | \alpha f(x) + \beta g(x)|^2 dx \leq | \alpha + \beta |^2##??
 
Almost. You need to insert some values. But that is not the easiest way to prove it. The space has no zero element.
 
Right! I can see that the function ##f(x) = 0## is not normalisable.

Therefore, lacking a zero element, the set of all normalised functions do not form a vector space.

I wonder how to complete the proof using my original approach. Is this the correct way?

Let ##\alpha = 0.1## and ##\beta = 0.1##, then ##|\alpha + \beta|^2## = 0.01.

So, ##\int^{a}_{b} | \alpha f(x) + \beta g(x)|^2 dx \neq 1##.
 
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  • #10
failexam said:
Right! I can see that the function ##f(x) = 0## is not normalisable.

Therefore, lacking a zero element, the set of all normalised functions do not form a vector space.

I wonder how to complete the proof using my original approach. Is this the correct way?

Let ##\alpha = 0.1## and ##\beta = 0.1##, then ##|\alpha + \beta|^2## = 0.01.

So, ##\int^{a}_{b} | \alpha f(x) + \beta g(x)|^2 dx \neq 1##.

Yes, that is fine apart from that the ##|\alpha + \beta|^2## = 0.01 should be an inequality.
 
  • #11
failexam said:
Haven't I already shown that the set of all normalised functions is ##\textit{not}## a vector space when I proved the following:

if ##\int_{a}^{b} |f(x)|^{2} dx = 1## and ##\int_{a}^{b} |g(x)|^{2} dx = 1##, then ##\int^{a}_{b} | \alpha f(x) + \beta g(x)|^2 dx \leq | \alpha + \beta |^2##??

Even easier: if ##f## is normalized to 1 and ##c## is a scalar with ##|c| \neq1##, then ##c f## is not normalized to 1.
 

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