Strange Relation: $\sum$ (m$^2$+n$^2$) = 2$\pi$ Integral

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between a double sum involving squares of integers and an integral expression. Participants are exploring the convergence and interpretation of these mathematical expressions, particularly in the context of sums over natural numbers and integrals in polar coordinates.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the divergence of the sum (m²+n²) and clarify that the intended expression may involve 1/(m²+n²). Questions arise regarding the interpretation of the integral and its limits, as well as the meaning of the similarity symbol (∼) in the context of the expressions.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants questioning assumptions about the expressions and providing insights into the nature of the integral and its relation to the sum. Some guidance is offered regarding the use of polar coordinates and the estimation of sums through integrals, though no consensus has been reached.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of confusion regarding the setup of the integral and the treatment of the variables involved. Participants note that the expressions diverge and that certain assumptions about the limits and domains of integration may need to be reconsidered.

Icosahedron
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\sum\ (m^2+n^2) = 2\pi\int^{\infty}_{1} (\frac{1}{r^2} r dr)

The sum goes over \mathbb{N}\times \mathbb{N}
 
Last edited:
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Wait, that is what I mean.

\sum\ (m^2+n^2)^{-1} \sim 2 \pi\int^{\infty}_{1} (\frac{1}{r^2} r dr)

The sum goes over \mathbb{N}\times \mathbb{N}

I can make no sense of it.

Edit: Now everything fixed.
 
Last edited:
The sum (m^2+n^2) clearly diverges. You must mean 1/(m^2+n^2). Then it's just an integral estimate. And it still diverges.
 
And the right side makes no sense. In 2\pi\int^{\infty}_{1} (\frac{1}{r^2} r dr), "r" is clearly intended to be a vector (otherwise it reduces to \int 1/r dr= ln(r)) in which case integrating from 1 to infinity doesn't make sense. My guess is that the right side is supposed to be integrated over all of R2.
 
Dick said:
The sum (m^2+n^2) clearly diverges. You must mean 1/(m^2+n^2). Then it's just an integral estimate. And it still diverges.

Right, that's what I meant. I'm still fighting with latex.

What you mean by 'just an integral estimate'. Why are both expressions \sim?

And, yes my book says too, it diverges.
 
Icosahedron said:
\sum\ (m^2+n^2)^{-1} \sim 2 \pi\int^{\infty}_{1} (\frac{1}{r^2} r dr)

The sum goes over \mathbb{N}\times \mathbb{N}

I can make no sense of it.

Hi Icosahedron! :smile:

Looks like you're supposed to integrate something over x and y from 1 to ∞ which has poles "of integral 1/r²" whenever x and y are both whole numbers, and then convert to polar coordinates. :smile:
 
The right side is the integral of 1/(x^2+y^2) over the plane (excluding some stuff near zero) in polar coordinates. It should be a reasonable estimate for the integer sum (also excluding (0,0), I hope). Just like the integral test for infinite series.
 
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Thanks!
 

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