Strange Sequence | Convergent and Divergent Limits Explained

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding a sequence \( (a_n) \) such that both \( \lim_{N\rightarrow \infty} \sum_{n=1}^{2N} a_n \) and \( \lim_{N\rightarrow \infty} \sum_{n=1}^{2N+1} a_n \) converge, while \( \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n \) diverges. Participants express confusion about how this is possible and explore the implications of alternating series.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the nature of the sequence \( a_n = (-1)^n \) and its behavior under different summation limits. Questions arise about the meaning of convergence in this context and the implications of summing an alternating series.

Discussion Status

Some participants have recognized the logic behind the convergence of the sums for even and odd indices, while others seek a more rigorous explanation of the limits involved. There is an ongoing exploration of definitions and terms related to the sequence.

Contextual Notes

Participants are grappling with the definitions of terms and members of the sequence, as well as the implications of summing an infinite series with alternating signs. The discussion reflects uncertainty about the convergence of series with an infinite number of terms.

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Homework Statement


Find sequence (a_n) s.t. \lim_{N\rightarrow \infty} \sum_{n=1}^{2N} a_n and \lim_{N\rightarrow \infty} \sum_{n=1}^{2N+1} a_n both converge but \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n diverges.

I have no idea where to start to be honest. I'm confused at how this is possible. Isn't it always just summed to infinity regardless of whether it's 2(x) or 2(x+1) where x-> infinity?
 
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a_n=(-1)^n
 
Can you explain how that works? I'd rather know what the problems means/is asking instead of really knowing the answer. I was guessing it had to do with alternating series, but I don't know what differentiates 2N, 2N + 1, and N.

Or does it mean that:
for the first sequence
(-1)^n = -1 + 1 + -1 + ... + (-1)^(2N) = (-1)^(2N) -> 1 as n approaches infinity
and same logic for the rest?
That would make sense I guess.

Edit: actually since there's an even number of terms for the first sequence and it goes -1,1, etc., then it should converge to 0. I would assume this is the correct logic to follow, but how is shown rigorously? Clearly, there must be something wrong in saying there is an even # of infinite terms.
 
Last edited:
\sum_{n=1}^{N}a_n=(-1)^N
so the series doesn't converge. On the other hand
\sum_{n=1}^{2N}a_n=0\qquad\sum_{n=1}^{2N+1}a_n=-1
so both limits exist. Sorry I left it w/o explanation, I though it was this kind of problems where the answer is kinda tricky, but easy to verify.
 
Yeah, after a bit longer, I recognized the logic. Thanks a bunch! Is there a way to rigorously explain that \lim_{N\rightarrow \infty} \sum_{n=1}^{2N} a_n=0?
 
Since each member of this sequence is zero, the limit is zero as well.
 
I'm not really sure how you define member since in my belief, each individual term is -1 or 1. However, I'm assuming you mean member is not the same as term.
Is it valid to say <br /> \lim_{N\rightarrow \infty} \sum_{n=1}^{2N} a_n= (-1) + 1 + (-1) + 1 + ... = (-1 + 1) + (-1 + 1) + ... = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1+1) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} 0 = 0<br />?
 
\sum_{n=1}^{2N}a_n=0 for every N, and so,
\lim_{N\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{n=1}^{2N}a_n=\lim_{N\rightarrow\infty}0=0
 
Oh. Makes sense. Thanks.
 

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