Study Shows Low Average of Books Read, Man Debates Its Validity

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the validity of a study on reading habits that reports a low average number of books read per person in a country with a population of 100 million. Participants debate the implications of the average and the necessity of sample size in making generalizations about the entire population.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Statistical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that the study indicates "most people don't read books" based on an average of 6 books per year, while another counters that without knowing the sample size, such a statement is not justified.
  • Several participants emphasize the importance of having a sufficiently large sample size to make valid statistical claims about a large population, suggesting that a small sample could lead to misleading conclusions.
  • Another participant mentions that for a given confidence level, a sample size of just over a thousand is adequate for a population of any size, challenging the need for a larger sample.
  • One participant argues that an average of 6 books per year does not necessarily imply that most people do not read, suggesting that the percentage of people who read zero books is crucial for such a claim.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the validity of the study's conclusions, with some supporting the claim that most people do not read based on the average, while others argue that the average alone is insufficient without additional data on reading habits.

Contextual Notes

There is uncertainty regarding the sample size used in the study, and participants highlight the need for clarity on how the average was calculated and its implications for the entire population.

Artus
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I was in a discussion with a man. I've read a study about reading habits. The study shows a low average of read books for some countries and told to a man "most of people doesn't read books" because the average was 6 books a year for a sample taken from a population of 100 millions of people.

The man told me, you don't know everyone of the 100 millions, so you can't tell most people don't read. I told him I don't need to know every person, just read the study and see the low average of read books to infer the people needs to read more books. He says the study is incomplete because they don't made the survey on the 100 millions. Is there a kind of fallacy behind his statement?

I think the survey is accurate in statistic terms, the study says, "in a country of 100 millions of persons, there is an average of 6 read books a year", I think that's low for this country so I say "most of people don't read books". He for the other side says "you need to know every person to make that statement".

Who is right?
 
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It's not a meaningful study unless you give the sample size for the population. For a population that large, 100 million people, you need to have a very large sample size to say it's statistically a good representation of the people. If they only interviewed 1000 people to generate that number, of 6 books per year, then he is right, you really can't make statements about all 100 million people. Without the sample size, it's a meaningless statement.
 
whybother said:
It's not a meaningful study unless you give the sample size for the population. For a population that large, 100 million people, you need to have a very large sample size to say it's statistically a good representation of the people. If they only interviewed 1000 people to generate that number, of 6 books per year, then he is right, you really can't make statements about all 100 million people. Without the sample size, it's a meaningless statement.

No.

For a given confidence level and tolerance (confidence interval), there exists a sample size which is suitable for a population of any size. For +/- 3%, to a 95% confidence, that size is just over a thousand. (That's why statistical surveys of large groups like the US use n = 1067 or so.)
 
whybother said:
It's not a meaningful study unless you give the sample size for the population. For a population that large, 100 million people, you need to have a very large sample size to say it's statistically a good representation of the people. If they only interviewed 1000 people to generate that number, of 6 books per year, then he is right, you really can't make statements about all 100 million people. Without the sample size, it's a meaningless statement.

CRGreathouse said:
No.

For a given confidence level and tolerance (confidence interval), there exists a sample size which is suitable for a population of any size. For +/- 3%, to a 95% confidence, that size is just over a thousand. (That's why statistical surveys of large groups like the US use n = 1067 or so.)

It was a large sample (about 15 millions) even if it isn't necessary. My argument is correct based on the size of the sample, although I was doubtful about it. My proposition is "most of people -of this country- don't read books" & I think is correct because of the low average they have.

Thank you guys for your help.
 
Artus said:
It was a large sample (about 15 millions) even if it isn't necessary. My argument is correct based on the size of the sample, although I was doubtful about it. My proposition is "most of people -of this country- don't read books" & I think is correct because of the low average they have.

Your argument is correct, your friend's has no merit. Five thousand would be plenty for a study like that; 15 million is just overkill (but still works).
 
i think you are wrong. first, 6 books a year is not low enough to say a person doesn't read. To say someone doesn't read is to say they read 0 books per year. you need to know the percentage of people that read 0 books per year to say "most people don't read books." the average doesn't tell you anything about how many people read 0 books. if every person in the country reads 6 books per year, would you say that most people don't read books?
 

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