Summation of sines and cosines questions

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the mathematical relationship between sums of sine and cosine functions, specifically in the context of a text that defines a summation involving cosine and queries whether a corresponding sine summation holds true. Participants explore the implications of Euler's identity and the uniqueness of solutions for the parameters involved.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the validity of a proposed relationship between sine and cosine summations, referencing Euler's identity and examining the consistency of definitions through real and imaginary parts of complex exponentials.

Discussion Status

The discussion includes various interpretations of the original question, with some participants affirming the proposed relationships while others caution about constraints and the uniqueness of solutions. Guidance has been offered regarding the mathematical reasoning involved, but no consensus has been reached on the broader implications.

Contextual Notes

There are mentions of constraints related to the uniqueness of solutions and the limitations of defining parameters based solely on the cosine equation, indicating that multiple combinations may satisfy the conditions presented.

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This is not a homework question per say, but rather a question I have about a text I am reading. In the text, they have defined

[tex]\sum E_{n} Cos \left( \frac{2 \pi X_{n}}{\lambda} \right) = E Cos \phi[/tex]

If this is the case, is it fair to say that

[tex]\sum E_{n} Sin \left( \frac{2 \pi X_{n}}{\lambda} \right) = E Sin \phi[/tex]

My text claims it is, though I can not figure out why. Any help would be appreciated.
 
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Yes, it is fair to say, and the reason is Euler's identity,

[tex]e^{ix} = \cos(x) + i \sin (x)[/tex]

Try starting with

[tex]\sum E_n \exp\left(\frac{i2 \pi X_n}{\lambda}\right)[/tex]

and see what you come up with.
 
Ahh. Let me see if I can make an argument out of this.

[tex]\sum E_n \exp \left( \frac{i2 \pi X_n}{\lambda} \right) = \sum E_{n} Cos \left( \frac{2 \pi X_{n}}{\lambda} \right) + E_{n} i Sin \left( \frac{2 \pi X_{n}}{\lambda} \right)[/tex]

But we can also say

[tex]\sum E_n \exp\left(\frac{i2 \pi X_n}{\lambda}\right) = Ee^{i \phi} = E cos \phi + i E sin \phi[/tex]

By setting the real parts equal to each other and the imaginary parts equal to each other, we see that the definitions are consistent.

Right?
 
There have to be some contraints to this, as it doesn't hold in general. For example:

[tex]\cos(x)=\cos(-x)[/tex]

but not

[tex]\sin(x)=\sin(-x)[/tex]
 
Maybe I read more into the question than was actually there.

It is true that there is a solution [itex]E, \phi[/itex] that satisfies the two equations, and with the convention that E > 0, the solution is unique. (E = 0 is a degenerate exception, in which case [itex]\phi[/itex] can be anything.)

Reading the question more literally, it does not make sense to define [itex]E, \phi[/itex] by just the one equation

[tex]\sum E_{n} Cos \left( \frac{2 \pi X_{n}}{\lambda} \right) = E Cos \phi[/tex]

as there are infinitely many combinations of [itex]E, \phi[/itex] that work.
 
Thanks for all the help, folks. Jbunniii your first interpretation was of the question was the one I intended.
 

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