Is the Supremum Proof of 0.999... = 1 Flawed?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the validity of the supremum proof that asserts 0.999... equals 1. Participants explore the implications of defining 0.999... as the supremum of the set of numbers {0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ...} and whether this method is flawed or not.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants argue that the supremum proof is flawed because it relies on the assumption that 0.999... is greater than or equal to 1, which they contest.
  • Others suggest that the supremum is correctly defined as the least upper bound of the set, and that 1 is indeed the supremum of {0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ...} regardless of the assumption about 0.999....
  • A participant mentions that 0.999... can be defined as a limit or as a Cauchy sequence, suggesting that these definitions are stable and valid.
  • Some participants express a preference for alternative proofs, such as the infinite series proof, and discuss the importance of definitions in proving the equality.
  • There is a mention that all acceptable definitions of 0.999... lead to the conclusion that 0.999... equals 1, emphasizing the equivalence of different approaches.
  • One participant raises the concern that rigorous definitions are necessary for operations involving 0.999..., indicating that informal methods may not suffice for formal proofs.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the validity of the supremum proof. There are competing views regarding the assumptions required for the proof and the definitions of 0.999....

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight the dependence on definitions and the implications of assuming different relationships between 0.999... and 1. The discussion reflects various interpretations of mathematical concepts without resolving the underlying disagreements.

TylerH
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I know .999... = 1. I'm just arguing against this method of proof.

A common proof I see that .999 \ldots = 1 is that sup\{.9, .99, .999, \ldots \} = 1, but this is only true if you assume .999 \ldots \ge 1. If you assume, as most argue, that .999 \ldots < 1, then sup \{.9, .99, .999, \ldots \} = .999 \ldots < 1. Of course, by assuming .999 \ldots < 1, you get the nonsense expected at the end of a proof by contradiction, but you still have to proof that .999 \ldots < 1 is nonsense by proving .999 \ldots = 1. Therefore, the supremum method is useless.

Is my logic correct?
 
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TylerH said:
Is my logic correct?
I'm not entirely sure. I think no, because you seem to be confusing the proof sketch with the actual proof. Computing that supremum is the idea of the proof. The actual proof consists of actually carrying out the relatively easy computation. (assuming it's being presented in a context where calculation is expected to be so obvious/trivial it can be emitted)
 
Okay we just had a first look at sups, but I thought I understood it to mean : sup [-1,1) = 1
for example.
So, why should sup{.9999...}=1 only if .999...>=1? shouldn't it require lessthan/equal 1?
 
Hurkyl said:
I'm not entirely sure. I think no, because you seem to be confusing the proof sketch with the actual proof. Computing that supremum is the idea of the proof. The actual proof consists of actually carrying out the relatively easy computation. (assuming it's being presented in a context where calculation is expected to be so obvious/trivial it can be emitted)
Assume 1 > .999... Obviously, 1 is greater than any number in {.9, .99, .999, ...}, but so is .999... So, since the supremum is the lowest upper bound, and 1 and .999... are bother upper bounds, .999... is the sup or lub.

ArcanaNoir said:
Okay we just had a first look at sups, but I thought I understood it to mean : sup [-1,1) = 1
for example.
So, why should sup{.9999...}=1 only if .999...>=1? shouldn't it require lessthan/equal 1?
sup is the lowest upper bound, so if a is the lowest upper bound, and b is an upper bound, then b >= a. This is a direct consequence of the definition of sup.
 
TylerH said:
I know .999... = 1. I'm just arguing against this method of proof.

A common proof I see that .999 \ldots = 1 is that sup\{.9, .99, .999, \ldots \} = 1, but this is only true if you assume .999 \ldots \ge 1. If you assume, as most argue, that .999 \ldots < 1, then sup \{.9, .99, .999, \ldots \} = .999 \ldots < 1. Of course, by assuming .999 \ldots < 1, you get the nonsense expected at the end of a proof by contradiction, but you still have to proof that .999 \ldots < 1 is nonsense by proving .999 \ldots = 1. Therefore, the supremum method is useless.

Is my logic correct?

.9999... is meaningful as a limit. The partial sequences .999... of a finite number of 9's are a Cauchy sequence.The difference 1 - ,9999... of 1 with n 9's is .00000...1 with n+1 leading zeros.
 
Yeah, I've seen the Cauchy sequence proof, too. I see no flawed assumption. But do you see what I mean about the Supremum method?
 
I personally prefer the infinite series proof in my signature.
 
I don't see a signature. But, I know which one you're referring to.
 
You can't prove that 0.999...=1 without first defining what the left-hand side means. The standard definition is 0.999\dots=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{9}{10^n}, but 0.999\dots=\sup\{0.9,0.99,\dots\} is a perfectly acceptable alternative definition. What definition are you using?
 
  • #10
Char. Limit said:
I personally prefer the infinite series proof in my signature.

It hinges on the definition of limit.
 
  • #11
Hells said:
It hinges on the definition of limit.

Unless I make .999...=1 an axiom, I'd have to hinge it on something. I think the definition of a limit is sufficiently stable.
 
  • #12
Char. Limit said:
I personally prefer the infinite series proof in my signature.

I don't see a signature either.
 
  • #13
Hells said:
It hinges on the definition of limit.
What's your point? Every proof of the result 0.999...=1 hinges on the definition of 0.999... and the definitions of the terms used in that definition, and so on, all the way down to primitives (the terms left undefined). The primitives are usually taken to be the concept of "set" and "membership" (what it means for a set to be a member of a set).

By the way, all the acceptable definitions of 0.999... are equivalent to simply stating that 0.999...=1. Each proof tells us precisely that the definition of 0.999... it relies on is equivalent to 0.999...=1.

The point of such a proof isn't to find out if 0.999...=1 is "really" true, but to confirm that the definition we chose does the job we intended it to do. A definition of 0.999... that can be used to show that 0.999...≠1 would simply be dismissed.
 
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  • #14
@TylerH:

So, you just define .999... to be sup{.9, .99, ...} and then show that 1 is also the sup of this set. I think this is they way the proof you mentioned is supposed to work.
 
  • #15
Robert1986 said:
@TylerH:

So, you just define .999... to be sup{.9, .99, ...} and then show that 1 is also the sup of this set. I think this is they way the proof you mentioned is supposed to work.

Okay, now that makes sense. It would force .999... = 1 by the transitive property of equality.
 
  • #16
0.111... * 9 = 0.999...
but 1/9 = 0.111...
so 0.999... = 0.111... * 9 = (1/9) * 9 = 1
 
  • #17
when I I have first know the recurvesing numbers i used to use this method

x=0.999...
10x=9.999...
9x=9
x=9/9=1But you can consider the number as a geometric series
 
  • #18
Nanas said:
when I I have first know the recurvesing numbers i used to use this method

x=0.999...
10x=9.999...
9x=9
x=9/9=1


But you can consider the number as a geometric series

And indeed, this is what you're doing. Just in a more veiled manner.
 
  • #19
Nanas said:
when I I have first know the recurvesing numbers i used to use this method

x=0.999...
10x=9.999...
9x=9
x=9/9=1


But you can consider the number as a geometric series

The only problem is that when you multiply .99... by anything, you have to have a definition for what that means. Of course, we think of it as just moving the decimal point over, and this is a good way to give a convincing argument to a layman that .999... is 1, but to do it rigoursly, I think you need to do the series expansion or the supremum thing or something else.
 
  • #20
Mohammad_93 said:
0.111... * 9 = 0.999...
but 1/9 = 0.111...
so 0.999... = 0.111... * 9 = (1/9) * 9 = 1

What was the point of this? What bearing did it have to do with anything in the thread or even the title?

I don't see any point in reopening the thread, especially in this fashion. Thread closed.
 

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