Surface integrals of vector fields, normal - does scaling matter?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of surface integrals of vector fields, particularly focusing on the implications of scaling and parameterization of surfaces defined by equations like x = 0. Participants are exploring the relationship between the gradient of a function and the surface element in the context of vector calculus.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are examining the implications of scaling the gradient when considering different parameterizations of the same surface. Questions arise about the correctness of assumptions regarding the normal vector and the surface element.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered clarifications regarding the relationship between the gradient and the surface element, while others are questioning the validity of their parameterizations. There seems to be an ongoing exploration of different interpretations without a clear consensus.

Contextual Notes

There are discussions about the assumptions made when parameterizing surfaces and how these affect the calculations of surface integrals. The conversation also touches on the potential confusion arising from different parameterizations leading to different results.

laser1
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Relevant Equations
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1729765210106.png

Source: https://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Problems/CalcIII/SurfIntVectorField.aspx

Alright so my confusion lies in the following step: Consider the side x = 0. Okay, from the formula (I am just going to insert an image here)

WhatsApp Image 2024-10-24 at 11.23.22.jpeg

Okay, so gradient of f would just be <1, 0, 0>, which is simply i, which agrees with the solution. However, what if I said that the plane x = 0 is equivalent to the plane 2x = 0? Then the gradient would be <2, 0, 0>, which changes the problem! There must be a flaw in my logic here, but I can't figure it out. Thanks!
 
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The plane kx = 0 has surface element dy\,dz. Its unit normal is \pm \mathbf{e}_x, so d\mathbf{S} = \pm\mathbf{e}_x\,dy\,dz.

What appears in your image implies dS = \|\nabla f\|\,dA, which is a change of variable from (y,z) to something different. Working out the detail there should cancel the 2 you introduced into \nabla f = 2\mathbf{e}_x.
 
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pasmith said:
What appears in your image implies dS = \|\nabla f\|\,dA
Oh, is this not correct then? Edit: I am not fully sure what you are saying
 
The normal of a level surface of f is parallel to \nabla f, ie. there is some non-zero scalar field k such that <br /> \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial u} \times \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial v} = k(u,v)\nabla f so that <br /> d\mathbf{S} = \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial u} \times \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial v}\,du\,dv =<br /> k \nabla f \,du\,dv and dS = |k|\|\nabla f\|\,du\,dv. The actual source of your error is to assume k \equiv 1.

If you parametrize f(x,y,z) = Cx = 0, C \neq 0, as \mathbf{r}(u,v) = u\mathbf{e}_y + v\mathbf{e}_z then you find d\mathbf{S} = <br /> \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial u} \times \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial v}\,du\,dv = \mathbf{e}_y \times \mathbf{e}_z\,du\,dv = \mathbf{e}_x\,du\,dv = \frac1C \nabla f\,du\,dv so that k \equiv \frac1C.
 
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pasmith said:
The normal of a level surface of f is parallel to \nabla f, ie. there is some non-zero scalar field k such that <br /> \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial u} \times \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial v} = k(u,v)\nabla f so that <br /> d\mathbf{S} = \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial u} \times \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial v}\,du\,dv =<br /> k \nabla f \,du\,dv and dS = |k|\|\nabla f\|\,du\,dv. The actual source of your error is to assume k \equiv 1.

If you parametrize f(x,y,z) = Cx = 0, C \neq 0, as \mathbf{r}(u,v) = u\mathbf{e}_y + v\mathbf{e}_z then you find d\mathbf{S} =<br /> \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial u} \times \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial v}\,du\,dv = \mathbf{e}_y \times \mathbf{e}_z\,du\,dv = \mathbf{e}_x\,du\,dv = \frac1C \nabla f\,du\,dv so that k \equiv \frac1C.
Thanks, that makes sense! What about this other example?
1729852873593.png

It seems equally as valid to parameterise a surface as <0, 2y, 2z>, where y and z can be any number, to represent x = 0. Yet the results suggest otherwise!
 
The general case for f(x,y,z) = x = 0 is \mathbf{r} = y(u,v)\mathbf{e}_y + z(y,v)\mathbf{e}_z, with <br /> d\mathbf{S} = \mathbf{e}_x \left( \frac{\partial y}{\partial u}\frac{\partial z}{\partial v} - \frac{\partial z}{\partial u}\frac{\partial y}{\partial v}\right)\,du\,dv and <br /> dS = \left| \frac{\partial y}{\partial u}\frac{\partial z}{\partial v} - \frac{\partial z}{\partial u}\frac{\partial y}{\partial v} \right|\,du\,dv which you should recognise as the change of variable formula for a double integral, <br /> dy\,dz = \left| \frac{\partial y}{\partial u}\frac{\partial z}{\partial v} - \frac{\partial z}{\partial u}\frac{\partial y}{\partial v} \right|\,du\,dv.
 
pasmith said:
The general case for f(x,y,z) = x = 0 is \mathbf{r} = y(u,v)\mathbf{e}_y + z(y,v)\mathbf{e}_z, with <br /> d\mathbf{S} = \mathbf{e}_x \left( \frac{\partial y}{\partial u}\frac{\partial z}{\partial v} - \frac{\partial z}{\partial u}\frac{\partial y}{\partial v}\right)\,du\,dv and <br /> dS = \left| \frac{\partial y}{\partial u}\frac{\partial z}{\partial v} - \frac{\partial z}{\partial u}\frac{\partial y}{\partial v} \right|\,du\,dv which you should recognise as the change of variable formula for a double integral, <br /> dy\,dz = \left| \frac{\partial y}{\partial u}\frac{\partial z}{\partial v} - \frac{\partial z}{\partial u}\frac{\partial y}{\partial v} \right|\,du\,dv.
I don't follow, sorry. In one example I get ##\textbf{i}## and in the other example I get ##\textbf{4i}## for the same equation.
 
laser1 said:
I don't follow, sorry. In one example I get ##\textbf{i}## and in the other example I get ##\textbf{4i}## for the same equation.
resolved: the parameterisation is different, so the bounds will change accordingly. All is fine! :)
 

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