Symmetrization Principle for Identical Particles with Different Spin

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the symmetrization principle for identical particles, specifically focusing on two electrons with different spins. It establishes that for indistinguishable particles, the wave function must satisfy the condition \(\psi(x_1,x_2) = \pm \psi(x_2,x_1)\). The challenge arises when considering the physical implications of measuring the z-spin of electrons at different positions, leading to the conclusion that the identity of the particles is what is interchanged, not their individual spins. This highlights the complexity of applying the symmetrization principle in quantum mechanics when spin is involved.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles
  • Familiarity with wave functions and their properties
  • Knowledge of particle indistinguishability
  • Basic concepts of spin in quantum physics
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of the symmetrization principle in quantum mechanics
  • Explore the concept of indistinguishable particles in more depth
  • Learn about the mathematical formulation of spin states in quantum mechanics
  • Investigate the role of measurement in quantum systems, particularly regarding spin
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Physicists, quantum mechanics students, and researchers interested in the behavior of identical particles and the implications of spin in quantum systems.

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Hey I'm tring to grasp the symmetrization principle for identical particles. If the particles are indistinguishble, for example two electrons (not regarding spin), then [tex]\psi(x_1,x_2)[/tex] must correspond to the same physical situation as [tex]\psi(x_2,x_1)[/tex]. It follows that

[tex]|\psi(x_1,x_2)|^2 = |\psi(x_2,x_1)|^2[/tex]

and from this the symmetrization principle follows as

[tex]\psi(x_1,x_2) = \pm \psi(x_2,x_1)[/tex].

This is all okay... However, if we had two electrons 1 and 2 with differents spins along the z-axis m1 and m2. Then how could the physical situation of 1 being at x1 with z-spin m1 and 2 being at x2 with spin m2 be the same as the situation of 2 being at x1 with spin m2 while 1 is at x2 with spin m1?

That is how could the physical situation of

[tex]\psi_{m_1,m_2}(x_1,x_2)[/tex]
be the same as the situation

[tex]\psi_{m_2,m_1}(x_2,x_1)?[/tex]

Could'nt we just mesure the z-spin of the particle at x1 in the two situations and determine the difference?
 
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It's more like this... ψ(x1,m1; x2,m2) = -ψ(x2,m2; x1,m1). In both cases the electron at x1 has spin m1, and the electron at x2 has spin m2. What is being interchanged is the identity of the particles.
 

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