- #1
nhrock3
- 415
- 0
i can't understand how the got this variation of taylor series formula
[tex]f(x+h)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(k)}(x)}{k!}(h)^k[/tex]
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/TaylorSeries.html
when around some point there is no x-x_0
[tex]f(x+h)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(k)}(x)}{k!}(h)^k[/tex]
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/TaylorSeries.html
when around some point there is no x-x_0