Tension on A Rope of Negligible Mass

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter Bashyboy
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Mass Rope Tension
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of tension in a massless rope, particularly focusing on the transmission of force through the rope and the implications of its negligible mass. Participants explore theoretical explanations and mathematical representations related to tension in flexible cords and the behavior of forces in such systems.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the validity of a statement regarding tension in a flexible cord and seeks clarification on why force is transmitted undiminished through a massless rope.
  • Another participant argues that if the cord has negligible mass and finite acceleration, the net force must be zero, leading to equal tension at both ends.
  • A different participant expresses confusion about the explanation provided and requests further clarification.
  • One participant suggests that the tugging force on the rope is transmitted from molecule to molecule without loss, due to the assumption of masslessness.
  • Another participant posits that if tension were not equal at both ends, it would imply an infinite acceleration, thus reinforcing the idea that tension must be the same or negligible.
  • A later reply seeks a mathematical demonstration of the force transmission in a massless rope, proposing a model of massless beads connected by springs to illustrate the concept.
  • Another participant introduces a scenario involving a massless string over a frictionless pulley, discussing the implications for tension and rotational motion.
  • One participant notes that the pulley scenario diverges from the original question and suggests starting a new thread for that discussion.
  • A participant apologizes for potentially derailing the conversation, indicating a desire to connect their question to the original topic.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express various viewpoints regarding the transmission of tension in a massless rope, with some agreeing on the principles of force transmission while others introduce different scenarios that may complicate the discussion. The conversation remains unresolved with multiple competing views and no consensus reached.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference assumptions about masslessness and the behavior of forces in different contexts, but these assumptions are not universally accepted or clarified, leading to potential limitations in the discussion.

Bashyboy
Messages
1,419
Reaction score
5
I was a reading a little section in my physics textbook regarding tension in a flexible cord. There is a part in the paragraph that I am not sure why is true. It goes as follows: "When a flexible cord pulls on an object, the cord is said to be under tension, and the force it exerts on an object...[can be the tension]...FT. If the cord has negligible mass, the force exerted at one end is transmitted and undiminished to each adjacent piece of cord along the entire length to the other end." Could someone explain to me why the second sentence is true? Thank you.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
If the cord has negligible mass and acceleration is finite then the net force on the cord must be zero (ma = 0). Therefore tension on the two ends will be equal and opposite.
 
I am not sure I really understand that explanation, sorry.
 
Try looking at it this way. When a mass is hung from the string, the lowermost molecule of the string is tugged by the gravitational force acting on the suspended object. This molecule passes on the 'tug' to its adjacent upper molecule, and as it is assumed to be massless, it does this without loss of force in transmission. This tug on the second molecule is passed on to the third and so on.. Finally the uppermost molecule of the string, immediately in contact with the roof experiences this pulling force and since it has no other molecule of its own to pass on this force, it transmits this to the roof, thereby pulling the roof with the exact same force the mass was being pulled at.
 
Suppose the tension at the two ends is not the same. That would mean there is a force acting on a mass that is very close to 0. If that was the case since F = ma, the string would experience an infinite acceleration. Since this doesn't happen, the tension is either the same at both ends or the difference is so small that we can ignore it.
 
I understand that this thread is rather old, but I recently have come across this difficulty again. I understand Infinitum's argument to some extent, but I am wondering if there is some mathematical way of showing it. If the rope is massless, then molecules that constitute it are massless, and the force transmits from one molecule to the next, is there a mathematical way of showing this?
 
Bashyboy said:
I understand that this thread is rather old, but I recently have come across this difficulty again. I understand Infinitum's argument to some extent, but I am wondering if there is some mathematical way of showing it. If the rope is massless, then molecules that constitute it are massless, and the force transmits from one molecule to the next, is there a mathematical way of showing this?

You can try thinking of the rope as a chain of massless beads connected to one another by short massless springs. Now we can set up a free-body diagram for any given bead and use ##F=ma## to see what the forces on it are; the tension in the spring is the tension of the rope at that point.

Interestingly, this approach works whether the rope is massless or not. If the rope has mass you just have to assign a suitable mass to each bead.
 
Hi Nugatory

Consider a massless string going over a massless frictionless pulley with masses M1 and M2 at the end of the string.

The tension in the string would be same.

The torque equation of the pulley says (T1-T2)=Iα .Now L.H.S is zero since T1=T2 and also I=0 .

So,we have a condition 0=(0)(α) which makes α indeterminate .But we know that the pulley rotates.
So ,how is α determined ?

Is α=a/R where R is the radius of the pulley and a=[(M2-M1)g]/(M1+M2) ?
 
Tanya Sharma said:
Hi Nugatory

Consider a massless string going over a massless frictionless pulley with masses M1 and M2 at the end of the string...
that's a different problem than OP posed. Rather than hijacking his thread, it might be best to start a new one.
 
  • #10
I sincerely apolozise if you feel i have hijacked the thread.I thought that the OP's concern has been addressed .i had doubt somewhat related so posted here .

Sorry,once again .
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
15K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
4K
  • · Replies 37 ·
2
Replies
37
Views
4K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K