The question asks me to work out the coefficient of friction for a block accelerating down a rough slope assuming their is no air resistance, which I could do easily. In the next part it then asks how the coefficient would change if their was air resistance
μ=coefficient of friction
R=resultant force of plane on block
The Attempt at a Solution
Well I concluded that because the surfaces are still the same the coefficient would still be the same, but the air resistance would push block down more incresing R and so slowing block down because their is more friction.
However the mark scheme said that their is less friction so coefficient must be less, which I really don't understand so I was hoping someone could explain it to me.
Any help would be much appreciated, thanks