Theorem 1.21 Rudin. Obviously wrong stated, right?

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter saim_
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Theorem
Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
3 replies · 4K views
saim_
Messages
135
Reaction score
1
Theorem 1.21 Rudin. Obviously wrongly stated, right?

Theorem 1.21 in Rudin states:

For every real [itex]x > 0[/itex], and every integer [itex]n > 0[/itex], there is one and only one real [itex]y[/itex] such that [itex]y^{n} = x[/itex].

The bold part should be "only one positive real", shouldn't it, or am I missing something? The proof also start with with an implicit assumption that [itex]y[/itex] is positive.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Yeah I agree it should be positive.

The obvious counter example if it wasn't is n=2 then both -1^2=1 and 1^2=1 making the statement false.
 
I'm looking at the Third Edition and it says "one and only one positive real."
 
Thanks guys.

@GenePeer: I got third edition as well and it says exactly what I wrote. The error must be only in some prints then.