Theorem 1.21 Rudin. Obviously wrong stated, right?

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Theorem 1.21 in Rudin asserts that for every real x > 0 and integer n > 0, there exists one and only one real y such that y^n = x. Participants in the discussion argue that the theorem should specify "only one positive real" y, as the proof assumes y is positive. A counterexample is provided, highlighting that if y were not restricted to positive values, both -1 and 1 would satisfy the equation for n=2, contradicting the theorem. It is noted that the Third Edition of Rudin correctly states "one and only one positive real." The conversation concludes with the implication that discrepancies may exist in different printings of the text.
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Theorem 1.21 Rudin. Obviously wrongly stated, right?

Theorem 1.21 in Rudin states:

For every real x > 0, and every integer n > 0, there is one and only one real y such that y^{n} = x.

The bold part should be "only one positive real", shouldn't it, or am I missing something? The proof also start with with an implicit assumption that y is positive.
 
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Yeah I agree it should be positive.

The obvious counter example if it wasn't is n=2 then both -1^2=1 and 1^2=1 making the statement false.
 
I'm looking at the Third Edition and it says "one and only one positive real."
 
Thanks guys.

@GenePeer: I got third edition as well and it says exactly what I wrote. The error must be only in some prints then.
 
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