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Theorem 1.21 Rudin. Obviously wrongly stated, right?
Theorem 1.21 in Rudin states:
For every real x > 0, and every integer n > 0, there is one and only one real y such that y^{n} = x.
The bold part should be "only one positive real", shouldn't it, or am I missing something? The proof also start with with an implicit assumption that y is positive.
Theorem 1.21 in Rudin states:
For every real x > 0, and every integer n > 0, there is one and only one real y such that y^{n} = x.
The bold part should be "only one positive real", shouldn't it, or am I missing something? The proof also start with with an implicit assumption that y is positive.
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