To prove that these two functions meet only once

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that two functions, F(x) and G(x), intersect at only one point for some x > 0. The functions are defined with specific parameters, and the context includes their behavior as x approaches 0 and infinity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the behavior of the functions at specific points, such as x=0 and as x approaches infinity. There is uncertainty about finding the exact intersection point analytically. Some participants suggest focusing on proving existence and uniqueness rather than finding the intersection itself.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants raising questions about the uniqueness of the intersection point and the implications of the functions having the same limit. Suggestions include using continuity and derivatives to explore existence and uniqueness, while acknowledging the need for further exploration of the functions' properties.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that they can utilize results from calculus and analysis, and there are corrections made to the definition of one of the functions during the discussion.

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Homework Statement



How would you go about proving that the functions

F(x)=\frac{2}{\pi}\arctan\Big(\frac{x}{a}\Big), x \geq 0

with a > 0

and

G(x)=1-\exp(-\lambda x),x\geq0

with \lambda>0meet only at one point for some x > 0

The Attempt at a Solution



At x=0, F and G takes the values 0s and both of the functions tend to 1 when x gets really large I think they must meet at least once. But still not sure about finding the actual point(s) since i do not think i can solve the equation
F=G analytically.
 
Last edited:
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willy0625 said:

Homework Statement



How would you go about proving that the functions

F(x)=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{\pi}\arctan\Big(\frac{x}{a}\Big), x\in\mathbb{R}

with a > 0

and

G(x)=1-\exp(-\lambda x),x\geq0

with \lambda>0


meet only at one point for some x > 0

The Attempt at a Solution



At x=0, F and G takes the values 0.5 a 0, respectively and both of the functions tend to 1 when x gets really large I think they must meet a least once. But still not sure about finding the actual point(s) since i do not think i can solve the equation
F=G analytically.

as x becomes large, the two function tend to 1.
And clearly they are increasing functions.

so what do you suggest?
 
I don't believe the problem is asking you to find x, rather to show it exists and is unique.
 
Yeah showing the uniqueness of that particular point is enough.
 
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The fact that your functions have the same limit does not mean they ever meet. Take for instance 1/x and 1/(x+1), for x>0. Clearly they both tend to zero, and clearly they are never equal.

I don't see right away how to do existence or uniqueness. By continuity if you can find a point where F<G then you have existence, and then maybe you could look at the derivative of F-G to show uniqueness. Or maybe there's something prettier. What topics has your classed covered recently?
 
This question poped up somewhere in my research.
I can use any results in calculus and analysis.

Note I have made some correction to the F function.
 
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