maverick280857
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Hi,
I am working through Carrol's book on General Relativity. On page 206, he makes the following statement:
How does this follow from the definition of a Killing vector?
He uses this equation to determine the total energy (equation 5.61).
Thanks in advance.
EDIT: This makes sense for a timelike particle for which,
p^\mu = m \frac{dx^\mu}{d\tau}
What about a lightlike particle?
EDIT 2: On page 207, he says that for a lightlike particle, it is convenient to normalize \lambda in such a way that p^\mu = \frac{dx^\mu}{d\lambda} for a lightlike particle. How does one justify this?
I am working through Carrol's book on General Relativity. On page 206, he makes the following statement:
Carroll said:If K^\mu is a Killing vector, we know that
K_\mu \frac{dx^\mu}{d\lambda} = \mbox{ constant }
How does this follow from the definition of a Killing vector?
He uses this equation to determine the total energy (equation 5.61).
Thanks in advance.
EDIT: This makes sense for a timelike particle for which,
p^\mu = m \frac{dx^\mu}{d\tau}
What about a lightlike particle?
EDIT 2: On page 207, he says that for a lightlike particle, it is convenient to normalize \lambda in such a way that p^\mu = \frac{dx^\mu}{d\lambda} for a lightlike particle. How does one justify this?
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