Transmission Coefficient of a Rectangular Square Potential Barrier

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the transmission coefficient (T) of a rectangular square potential barrier characterized by height \( V_0 = \lambda/L \) and thickness \( L \). As \( L \) approaches zero, the analysis reveals that the transmission coefficient approaches a constant value rather than zero or one, indicating that the barrier's thinness does not negate its effect on particle transmission. The derived formula for the transmission coefficient is \( T \approx \frac{1}{1+\frac{m}{2\hbar^2}\frac{\lambda^2 }{E}} \), which highlights the relationship between mass, Planck's constant, and energy in this quantum mechanical scenario.

PREREQUISITES
  • Quantum mechanics fundamentals
  • Understanding of potential barriers in quantum physics
  • Familiarity with the Schrödinger equation
  • Basic knowledge of hyperbolic functions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the Schrödinger equation for potential barriers
  • Explore the implications of the transmission coefficient in quantum tunneling
  • Learn about the behavior of wave functions in potential wells
  • Investigate the role of hyperbolic functions in quantum mechanics
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in physics, particularly those specializing in quantum mechanics, as well as researchers exploring quantum tunneling and potential barriers.

SOMEBODYCOOL
Messages
5
Reaction score
0
If you have a rectangular square potential barrier of some height, say \lambda/L, and thickness L, what is the transmission coefficient and what is its value in the limit that L goes to 0?

Thus you have the height of the barrier going to infinity, while the width goes to zero... Assuming some fixed incident energy, the probability amplitude decays exponentially as it enters the wall, but since the barrier is thinner, there is less room for that decay. It seems obvious to me that the exponential wins out, but I'm not really sure... Would the transmission be zero for such a barrier? The alternative, I suppose, would be 1, meaning that the barrier is so infinitely thin that the particle doesn't even see it, which doesn't make a lot of sense either.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
It will go to a constant.
$$T=|t|^2= \frac{1}{1+\frac{V_0^2\sinh^2(k_1 L)}{4E(V_0-E)}}$$
where $$k_1=\sqrt{2m (V_0-E)/\hbar^{2}}$$
Plugging in ##V_0 = \lambda/L## we get
$$k_1 L=L \sqrt{2m (\lambda/L-E)/\hbar^{2}} \approx \sqrt{2m \lambda L/\hbar^2}$$
This goes to zero for decreasing L. As ##\sinh(x) \approx x## for small x we get
$$T \approx \frac{1}{1+\frac{V_0^2 \,2m \lambda L}{4E(V_0-E) \hbar^2}} = \frac{1}{1+\frac{m}{2\hbar^2}\frac{\lambda^3 }{E(\lambda-EL)}} \approx \frac{1}{1+\frac{m}{2\hbar^2}\frac{\lambda^2 }{E}}$$
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
Replies
5
Views
4K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K