Trigonometric Integration / relationship between f(cosx) and f(sinx)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the equality of two integrals involving a function f evaluated at sine and cosine over the interval [0, π/2]. The original poster attempts to relate the integrals of f(sin(x)) and f(cos(x)) through trigonometric identities and properties.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss using trigonometric identities to transform one integral into another. There is an exploration of the relationship between integrals of f evaluated at sine and cosine functions, and the implications of changing variables in integrals.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, sharing insights and tips. Some guidance has been offered regarding the properties of sine and cosine, and the concept of changing variables in integrals has been introduced. However, there is still some confusion about the formal derivation of the relationship between the integrals.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes considerations of the properties of well-behaved functions and the implications of variable substitution in the context of definite integrals.

Zatman
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Homework Statement



Show that:

∫f(sin(x))dx = ∫f(cos(x))dx

where each integral is over the limits [0, \pi/2], for a 'well behaved' function f.

2. The attempt at a solution

I have tried relating sin(x) and cos(x) and somehow rearrange one of the integrals to look like the other. Since:

sin(x) = cos(x-\pi/2)

I can substitute this into the LHS integral and I am sure this is the correct way to start. It is at this point where I cannot think of any way of moving forward.

Any help would be appreciated.
 
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You are heading the right way. I'll give you two tips. The first is, how are \displaystyle \int_{0}^{t} f(x)\,dx and \displaystyle \int_{0}^{t} f(t-x)\,dx related?

The second tip is, think about the fundamental properties of sine and cosine. There is one particular property that will help you.
 
Thank you for you reply Millennial.

Using the property that cos(-x) = cos(x) I have got:

int[f(sinx)]dx = int[f(cos(x-\pi/2))] = int[f(cos(\pi/2-x))]

Looking at your first tip one would assume that the relation is that they are equal (since that yields the required result), which is obvious from a sketch of the graphs of cos(x) and cos(\pi/2-x). But I am not sure how you would derive this more formally?
 
Zatman said:
But I am not sure how you would derive this more formally?
By a change of variable. In the integral of f(t-x).dx, substitute x = t - u wherever x occurs (including the bounds).
 
Sorry but I am still confused:

I = int(0 to t)[f(t-x)]dx

let u = t - x
then du = -dx
limits become t to 0

I = -int(t to 0)[f(u)]du
I = int(0 to t)[f(u)]du

Now what? If I put x back in I just get what I started with.
 
Zatman said:
I = int(0 to t)[f(u)]du
Now what? If I put x back in I just get what I started with.
The variable of integration is a 'dummy' variable. You can change it to anything you like so long as you do it consistently. If I = int(0 to t)[f(u)]du then it must also be true that I = int(0 to t)[f(x)]dx.
 
I see, the value of the integral depends only on the limits and the form of the integrand.

Thank you for your help haruspex and Millennial. :)
 

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