Trigonometric Sum Challenge Σtan^(-1)(1/(n^2+n+1)=π/2

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around a mathematical challenge involving the summation of the inverse tangent function, specifically exploring the relationship between the sum of arctangents and the value of π/2. The scope includes mathematical reasoning and potential proof techniques, such as induction.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • Post 1 presents a formula relating the inverse tangent of k to a sum involving the inverse tangent of a fraction, suggesting that the infinite sum converges to π/2.
  • Post 2 proposes using mathematical induction to prove the relationship for all integers k, starting from the base case of k=1.
  • Post 3 and Post 4 contain individual solutions, though the specifics of these solutions are not detailed in the provided text.
  • A participant expresses appreciation for a solution provided by another, indicating a positive reception of the contributions made.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants appear to be exploring the same mathematical challenge, but there is no clear consensus or resolution regarding the proofs or solutions presented. The discussion remains open with multiple approaches being considered.

Contextual Notes

The discussion may involve assumptions about the convergence of the series and the validity of induction, but these aspects are not fully explored or resolved in the posts.

Who May Find This Useful

Readers interested in mathematical proofs, particularly those involving series and trigonometric functions, may find this discussion relevant.

lfdahl
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Show that

\[\tan^{-1}(k) = \sum_{n=0}^{k-1}\tan^{-1} \left ( \frac{1}{n^2+n+1} \right ),\;\;\;\;\; k \geq 1,\]

- and deduce that

\[ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\tan^{-1} \left ( \frac{1}{n^2+n+1} \right ) = \frac{\pi}{2}.\]
 
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Looks like an obvious candidate for induction on ki. When k= 1, both sided are tan^{-1}(1).

Assume that, for k= j, tan^{-1}(j)= \sum_{n=0}^{k-1} tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{n^2+ n+ 1}\right). Use that to show that
tan^{-1}(j+1)= \sum_{n=0}^{j} tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{n^2+ n+ 1}\right).
 
My solution

We have $n^2+n+1= 1+n(n+1) = \frac{1+n(n+1)}{(n+1) - n}$
Or $\frac{1}{n^2+n+1} = \frac{(n+1)-n}{1+(n+1)n}$
Using $\tan^{-1}\frac{a-b}{1+ab} = \tan^{-1} a - \tan^{-1}{b}$
We get $\tan^{-1} \frac{1}{n^2+n+1} = \tan ^{-1}(n+1)- \tan ^{-1}n$
Adding from 0 to k-1 we get as telescopic sum
Hence $\sum_{n=0}^{k-1} \tan^{-1} \frac{1}{n^2+n+1} = \tan ^{-1}k- \tan ^{-1}0 = \tan ^{-1}k$
Taking limit as $k = \infty$
$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \tan^{-1} \frac{1}{n^2+n+1} = \tan ^{-1}\infty= \frac{\pi}{2}$
 
kaliprasad said:
My solution

We have $n^2+n+1= 1+n(n+1) = \frac{1+n(n+1)}{(n+1) - n}$
Or $\frac{1}{n^2+n+1} = \frac{(n+1)-n}{1+(n+1)n}$
Using $\tan^{-1}\frac{a-b}{1+ab} = \tan^{-1} a - \tan^{-1}{b}$
We get $\tan^{-1} \frac{1}{n^2+n+1} = \tan ^{-1}(n+1)- \tan ^{-1}n$
Adding from 0 to k-1 we get as telescopic sum
Hence $\sum_{n=0}^{k-1} \tan^{-1} \frac{1}{n^2+n+1} = \tan ^{-1}k- \tan ^{-1}0 = \tan ^{-1}k$
Taking limit as $k = \infty$
$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \tan^{-1} \frac{1}{n^2+n+1} = \tan ^{-1}\infty= \frac{\pi}{2}$

You´re truly a master, kaliprasad, thankyou very much for your nice solution!(Yes)
 

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