atnu8 said:
Thank you all for the replies, I feel like I may be getting the idea..
The perception of time never changes for the observer, time differences can only be perceived if an observer has a change in acceleration in relation to another observer?
Just trying to wrap my head around the whole 'reference frame' thing. According to
Planck Collaboration et al. (2018) the earth is hurtling through space at 369.82±0.11kms−1.
Does this speed have no influence on our perception of time?
If the earth is speeding up in this direction, would time be slowing down for us or can the difference only be noted if there is something to reference against? (like a copy of the earth that wasn't speeding up)
I would suggest learning about quantities, called invariants, that are independent of the frame of reference. In special relatiavity, his would be, for instance, the Lorentz interval. This would be discussed in textbooks such as "Space time physics" by E.F. Taylor. An older edition is available for free on his website - this is a standard textbook with a rather informal and chatty style.
See for instance
https://www.eftaylor.com/spacetimephysics/
The common definition of distance intervals and time intervals do change with one's reference frame, but there is a way of combining them that does not.
"The Parable of the Surveyor", the first chapter of the reference I just gave, is perhaps a bit longwinded but describes how north-south and east-west are part of a larger concept in surveying. It is worth thinking about why we regard north-south and east-west as being combined into a larger structure, rather than two separate entities.
This sounds simple enough - and it is - but there is one obstacle that people stumble over all the time, and something that Einstein had to struggle with to formulate the special theory of relativity. This is the notion that the idea of "at the same time", or "now", depends on the frame of reference.
Many, many people find this very hard to grasp, and it is a notorious obstacle to understanding special relativity. It's unclear if bringing this up now is the best approach, but it just doesn't make sense that switching from distance and time intervals (which vary with the reference frame) suddenly become frame independent if they don't, somehow, interact with each other. It turns out that while space and time intervals do vary with the reference frame, a fairly simple combination of them does not.
The actual math formula is actually simple - if dx is a distance interval, and dt is a time interval c^2 dt^2 - dx^2, and it's inverse dx^2 - c^2 dt^2, are invariant and independent of the frame of reference, while dt and dx are not independent.
This speciflally means that if dt equals zero in one frame of reference it may not be (and usually is not) zero in a different frame of reference. Hence, the phenomenon that is called "the relativity of simultaneity".
This is a simple example with only one dimension of space, but that's more than good enough to get started. Note that for any two points connected by a beam of light, this formula gives Lorentz interval of zero. That' where the remarks about "null intervals" come from.
It's a LOT easier to keep tract of things that don't change with the frame of reference than it is to keep tract of things that do deped on the frame of reference. For one thing, one winds up tediously haveing to give the exact details of what frame of rerference one is using. This is doable, and sometimes can't be avoided, but it is in general much easier to talk about things that are the same in all frames of references - things that are invariant.