Trying to find the radius of convergence of this complicated infinite series

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the radius of convergence for an infinite series involving factorials, specifically the series \(\sum^{\infty}_{n=0} \frac{(n!)^{k+2}*x^{n}}{((k+2)n)!}\), where \(k\) is a positive integer.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of the ratio test and the challenges encountered with factorials. Some suggest simplifying the series by considering cases for different values of \(k\) and splitting the series based on \(n\) values. There are questions about how to effectively manipulate the factorials to find convergence.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring various approaches to tackle the problem. Some guidance has been offered regarding the treatment of the series and factorials, but no consensus has been reached on a specific method or solution.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the complexity of the factorial expressions and the potential for simplification by examining special cases. There is an emphasis on the importance of the tail of the series in determining convergence.

skyturnred
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Homework Statement



k is a positive integer.

[itex]\sum^{\infty}_{n=0}[/itex] [itex]\frac{(n!)^{k+2}*x^{n}}{((k+2)n)!}[/itex]

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I have no idea.. this is too confusing. I tried the ratio test (which is the only way I know how to deal with factorials) but I get stuck at the following

lim n->[itex]\infty[/itex] of | x(n+1)[itex]^{k+2}[/itex][itex]\frac{[(k+2)n]!}{[(k+2)(n+1)]!}[/itex] |

I can't seem to find a way to cancel out the factorials in the fractional portion of that
 
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Here's a thought. k is just some positive integer, right? The issue of convergence of a series arises in the "tail" of the series - that is, if you want to look at the convergence of [itex]\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}\ a_n x^n[/itex], you could just as easily look at the convergence of [itex]\sum_{i=N}^{\infty}\ a_n x^n[/itex]. With that in mind, try splitting the series into n < k and n > k to simplify things slightly. Also you can drop the absolute values around those factorials, since they're positive.
 
Try and focus on the problem by doing the special case k=0. Then try k=1. Can you generalize?
 
skyturnred said:
I can't seem to find a way to cancel out the factorials in the fractional portion of that

When I cancel factorials, I usually expand the factorial into maybe three or more factors, e.g. [tex]n!=n(n-1)(n-2)...[/tex] and [itex](n-1)!=(n-1)(n-2)...[/itex]

Then it is clear that [itex]\frac{n!}{(n-1)!}=n[/itex]
 

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