KingOrdo said:
No. It's a pseudoparadox in the simple case because there is a way to resolve it
I've been using pseudoparadox in the
technical sense, rather than as a synonym for "aha, I'm no longer confused". (Of course, in this informal sense, this is a pseudoparadox for me, whether or not it's a paradox for you)
Yes, you *are* claiming that physical law is variant on topology. If the mechanism for symmetry breaking in a complex space is essentially different than the mechanism in, say, the actual Universe (viz. acceleration), then--unlike in the actual Universe--law is not invariant with regard to topology. Now, I'm not saying you're *wrong*; indeed, a lot of (very smart) people believe exactly that. But we'll need some argument to overcome the prima facie implausibility.
The symmetry demanded by Einstein was local, and it's still present even in these "complex spaces". It's not "broken".
But that symmetry was only demanded of the
laws of physics -- it would be rather silly to demand everything be symmetric. The matter distribution, the metric, other fields we put on space-time... they aren't required, nor even expected to be symmetric.
But the diffeomorphism invariance of GR is not what's relevant here. We have the rather exceptional case that flat RxS^1 is locally isometric to 1+1 Minkowski space, and that flat Rx(S^1)^3 is locally isometric to 3+1 Minkowski space. We are interested in the question of whether a problem on RxS^1 can be treated as if it was a problem in 1+1 Minkowski space. This is a problem of piecing local information together, hoping to obtain global information, and whether we can do this is one of the big questions studied in topology.
That's how the winding number fits in, in the RxS^1 case -- if we follow observer X's path forward between meeting points, and then Y's path backwards between meeting points, we have a closed curve and can ask about its winding number. If that number is zero, we can treat the entire problem as if it were happening in Minkowski space. If that number is nonzero, then the global periodic nature of spacetime is relevant in an essential way -- in particular, the winding number is zero if and only if X and Y really do meet again, according to the Minkowski analysis.
To wit, if we take the cosmological twin paradox on RxS^1, then if the twins are both traveling inertially, they cannot possibly meet twice. In fact, that really should be the big clue that there are flaws in treating the situation with special relativistic methods.
The difference is, of course, that it's totally unintelligible to talk about the ages of points on the unit circle. Not so in the physical case. If you were right, then there would be no time dilation at all, even in the simple cases.
Age is a number. We're talking about numbers.
In Barrow & Levin, they observe that "it becomes impossible for H to synchronize her clocks" -- that is because she needs to have a branch cut in her coordinates. (Or use multi-valued coordinate functions, or use the universal cover...)
No; you're confusing the counterintutiveness of time dilation
It's not counterintuitive.

(At least, it's not counterintuitive for me...)