Uncertainty principle in classical mechanics boundary

[omri3012]

Hallo,

Why does dp*dx>>h represents classical mechanics state?

Thanks,
Omri

 

[xepma]

You could interpret it as taking the limit of the Planck constant $$h\downarrow 0$$. Since quantum mechanical effects are typically of order $$O(h)$$, this limit, in some sense, puts these 'quantum corrections' to zero. This way you end up in a regime which is effectively described by classical mechanics. The corresponding physical states are classical.

 

[omri3012]

Thanks,

i misunderstood you, if quantum mechanical effects are of order O(h) how does dp*dx>>h represents classical mechanics state?