Understanding 1^∞ as an Indeterminate Form

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The discussion clarifies that 1^∞ is classified as an indeterminate form due to its behavior in limits. Specifically, the limit lim_{n→∞} (1 + 1/n)^n approaches 1^∞ but does not converge to 1. The reasoning involves the slow convergence of 1 + 1/n to 1 and the rapid growth of n towards infinity. Additionally, the expression lim_{n→∞} f(n)^{g(n)} leads to the indeterminate form 0·(+∞) when f(n) approaches 1 and g(n) approaches infinity.

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I am sure that [itex]x^{\infty}[/itex] as [itex]x\to1[/itex] is an indeterminate form.

But can someone please explain how [itex]1^{\infty}[/itex] is indeterminate? I always thought it is equal to 1.
 
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We choose [itex]1^\infty[/itex] to be indeterminate. The reason we do this, is because of the limit

[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n[/tex]

This will converge to "[itex]1^\infty[/itex]" in a certain sense, but it will not converge to 1. The reason that it does not converge to 1 is that [itex]1+\frac{1}{n}[/itex] converges to 1 too slow and that n converges to infinity too fast.

Another explanation is the following, say that f(n) converges to 1 and that g(n) converges to infinity, then

[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} f(n)^{g(n)} = \lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} e^{g(n) log(f(n))}=e^{\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} g(n) log(f(n))}[/tex]

But as f(n) converges to 1, we have that log(f(n)) converges to 0. So [itex]g(n)log(f(n))[/itex] converges to "[itex]0\cdot (+\infty)[/itex]" and this is a known indeterminate form.

So if we want to define [itex]1^\infty[/itex] and if we want to let it behave like we want it to, then we would have to define [itex]0\cdot (+\infty)[/itex] a well!
 
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Aha! That clears it up.

Thank you.
 

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