We choose [itex]1^\infty[/itex] to be indeterminate. The reason we do this, is because of the limit
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n[/tex]
This will converge to "[itex]1^\infty[/itex]" in a certain sense, but it will not converge to 1. The reason that it does not converge to 1 is that [itex]1+\frac{1}{n}[/itex] converges to 1 too slow and that n converges to infinity too fast.
Another explanation is the following, say that f(n) converges to 1 and that g(n) converges to infinity, then
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} f(n)^{g(n)} = \lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} e^{g(n) log(f(n))}=e^{\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} g(n) log(f(n))}[/tex]
But as f(n) converges to 1, we have that log(f(n)) converges to 0. So [itex]g(n)log(f(n))[/itex] converges to "[itex]0\cdot (+\infty)[/itex]" and this is a known indeterminate form.
So if we want to define [itex]1^\infty[/itex] and if we want to let it behave like we want it to, then we would have to define [itex]0\cdot (+\infty)[/itex] a well!